MATERIALS AND METHODS FOR DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT OF ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE

Information

  • Patent Application
  • 20180067133
  • Publication Number
    20180067133
  • Date Filed
    March 17, 2016
    8 years ago
  • Date Published
    March 08, 2018
    6 years ago
Abstract
Alzheimer's disease (AD) is the most common type of dementia in aging adults with the number of people living with AD projected to increase, making the search for treatments and tools to diagnose and measure disease progression increasingly urgent. In particular, ideal biomarkers for diagnosis of AD should not only have high specificity for disease versus non-disease and high sensitivity for distinguishing between disease types but also should be able to detect changes at a very early stage of the disease. Using microglia activation as an early event of AD's onset, the present inventors have identified a panel of biomarkers in CSF which has the potential to diagnose, stage and determine the likelihood of developing AD.
Description
FIELD OF THE INVENTION

The invention relates to biomarker panels and methods for diagnosing, staging and assessing the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder. In particular, the invention concerns biomarker panels useful in methods for the diagnosis and treatment of Alzheimer's disease.


BACKGROUND OF THE INVENTION

Alzheimer's disease (AD) is the most common type of dementia in aging adults with the number of people living with AD projected to increase dramatically over the next few decades, making the search for treatments and tools to diagnose and measure disease progression increasingly urgent.


Approved treatments are few and of limited efficacy, serving mostly to slow or delay progression. Currently there is no cure.


AD gives rise to an irreversible progressive loss of cognitive functions and of functional autonomy. While the time it takes for AD to develop will vary from person to person, advanced signs include severe memory impairment, confusion, language disturbances, impaired judgment, personality and behaviour changes. Patients with AD may become non-communicative and hostile. As the disease ends its course in profound dementia, patients are unable to care for themselves and often require institutionalization or professional care in the home setting. While some patients may live for many years after being diagnosed with AD, the average life expectancy after diagnosis is eight years.


Although AD can only be definitively diagnosed by brain biopsy or upon autopsy after a patient died, in clinical settings brain biopsy is rarely performed and diagnosis is still primarily made based on the history of the symptoms and depends on a battery of neurological, psychometric and biochemical tests, which include the measurement of biomarkers.


Nevertheless, these present methods are still not satisfactory in the diagnosing of AD and other neurocognitive disorders at the early stage of the disease when potential therapies are more likely to prevent or slow down neurodegeneration.


As the brain is in direct contact with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and pathological changes in the brain often result in altered biochemical composition of the CSF, this makes it an ideal source for biomarkers of neurocognitive disorders. In AD, currently three “core” CSF biomarkers (amyloid β1-42, total tau and phosphorylated tau) are routinely used to diagnose AD. All three of these CSF biomarkers demonstrate high levels of sensitivity (falling within the 80-90% criteria specified by the National Institute of Neurological and Disorders and Stroke and the Alzheimer Disease and Related Disorders Work Group) but struggle to differentiate AD from other forms of dementia and neurological disorders. For example, CSF amyloid β1-42 levels are decreased in AD but are also reportedly lower in Lewy body dementia (LBD), fronto-temporal dementia (FTD), vascular dementia (VaD), amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) (Blennow K et al., Nat Rev Neurol. 2010, 6:131-44). Similarly, total tau levels are raised in AD but are also found elevated following stroke, traumatic brain injury, FTD, VaD and CJD1.


Two key features of an ideal biomarker are high specificity for disease versus non-disease and high sensitivity to distinguish between disease types. In addition, biomarkers that reflect the pathological process of AD and that are able to detect changes at a very early stage of the disease, before degeneration is observed by brain imaging and neuropathological tests, are very sought after.


The ideal biomarker or biomarker panel would be the first indicator for starting treatment as early as possible, when degeneration is still limited, it would prove immensely valuable in screening the effectiveness of new therapies in clinical trial settings, particularly those trials that are focused on preventing the development of neuropathological changes. Such biomarker or biomarker panel would also be useful in the follow-up of the development of the disease.


Hence, there remains a need for biomarkers that may perform with superior sensitivity and/or specificity in the early diagnosis, staging and prognostic monitoring of patients with Alzheimer's disease and other neurocognitive disorders.


SUMMARY OF THE INVENTION

The present invention, therefore, provides novel biomarker panels for use in methods for diagnosing, staging and assessing the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder, in particular Alzheimer's disease.


In a first aspect, the present invention provides for a biomarker panel comprising:

    • i) phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or
    • ii) thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof.


In one embodiment of this first aspect, the panel further comprises ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1 which comprises or has an amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:4 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or vitamin D binding protein which comprises or has an amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO: 5 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof.


In another embodiment of this first aspect, the panel further comprises one or more biomarkers selected from a protein involved in a KEGG pathway wherein KEGG pathway is selected from the group of complement and coagulation cascade, or glycolysis/glycogenesis, or prion disease, or amino and nucleotide sugar metabolism, or antigen processing and presentation, or extracellular matrix-receptor interaction, or focal adhesion, or regulation of actin cytoskeleton or alanine/aspartate/glutamate metabolism.


In another embodiment of this aspect the panel further comprises at least one, optionally two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of this aspect, the panel further comprises at least two or more, optionally at least three or more biomarkers selected from the group of Dynactin subunit 1, Cofilin-1, Peroxiredoxin-1, MARCKS-related protein, Moesin, Actin, Protein TMSB4XP4, ApoE, Gelsolin, Secretogranin, Albumin and complement proteins.


In a second aspect, there is provided a method for diagnosing a neurocognitive disorder in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of the biomarker panel according to the first aspect and its embodiments;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has a neurocognitive disorder by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers.


In a third aspect, there is provided a method for staging a neurocognitive disorder in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of the biomarker panel according to the first aspect and its embodiments;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining the stage of the neurocognitive disorder in said subject by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers.


In a fourth aspect the present invention provides for a method for assessing in a subject the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of the biomarker panel according to the first aspect and its embodiments;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject is likely to develop a neurocognitive disorder by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers.


In embodiments of these second, third and fourth aspects, the neurocognitive disorder is characterised by microglia activation and/or is selected from the group of mild cognitive impairment, Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, dementia with lewy bodies, fronto-temporal dementia or combinations thereof.


In particular, the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease.


In a fifth aspect of the present invention there is provided a method for treating Alzheimer's disease in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of the biomarker panel according to the first aspect and its embodiments;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has Alzheimer's disease by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;
    • d) administering to said subject an Alzheimer's disease treatment selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof.


In a sixth aspect of the present invention there is provided a method for aiding the prognosis of a treatment for Alzheimer's disease in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of the biomarker panel according to the first aspect and its embodiments;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether said treatment for Alzheimer's disease is successful by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers.


In embodiments of this sixth aspects the treatment for Alzheimer's disease may be selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof.


In other embodiments of the second to sixth aspects the sample is selected from the group of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, plasma, serum, saliva, urine, tissue (e.g. brain tissue) or combinations thereof. Preferably, the sample is CSF and/or the subject is a human subject, optionally a human subject previously diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment or a human subject undergoing further clinical assessment of dementia.


In other embodiments of the second to sixth aspects the assaying in step a) and/or the measuring in step b) comprise:

    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv).


Preferably, the assaying step a) and/or the measuring step b) comprise detecting one or more fragments of said biomarker in the biomarker panel.


Optionally, the sample is immobilised on a solid support.


In a seventh aspect the present invention provides for a method for identifying biomarkers in a sample obtained from a subject, wherein the biomarkers are suitable for diagnosing or staging Alzheimer's disease, wherein the method comprises using activate microglia cells (e.g. BV2 cells) and/or their culture media in mass spectrometry and/or wherein the biomarkers are identified in said sample by using activated microglia cells as a reference.


Preferably, the biomarker panel comprises the biomarkers as defined in the first aspect and its embodiments.


In embodiments of this seventh aspect, the sample is selected from the group of CSF, blood, serum or plasma.


In an eighth aspect the present invention provides for a kit comprising reagents for assaying and/or measuring in a sample biomarkers of a biomarker panel according to the first aspect and its embodiments.


In one embodiment of this eighth aspect, the reagents comprise one or more binding agents which specifically bind to the biomarkers of the biomarker panels. Preferably, the one or more binding agents are primary antibodies, wherein each primary antibody specifically binds to a different biomarkers of the biomarker panel.


In another embodiment, the reagents further comprise one or more secondary antibodies which specifically bind to said primary antibodies. Optionally, the secondary antibodies are labelled.


In other embodiments the sample is selected from the group of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, plasma, serum, saliva, urine, tissue (e.g. brain tissue) or combinations thereof.





BRIEF DESCRIPTION OF THE DRAWINGS


FIG. 1. Sequence of human phosphoglucomutase 1. Amino acids flagged by symbol □ or a * indicate amino acids which are replaced by a different or a modified amino acid in an isoform or a variant of human phosphoglucomutase 1, respectively.



FIG. 2. Sequence of human thymosin beta-4. Amino acids outlined by a * indicates amino acids which are replaced by a different amino acid in a variant of human thymosin beta-4.



FIG. 3. Up-regulation of peroxideroxin-1 (A), MARCKS-related protein (B), Meosin (C) and Actin (D) in AD CSF versus control CSF shown as function of the average signal intensity.



FIG. 4. Up-regulation of Phosphoglucomutase-1 (A), Protein TMSB4XP4 (B), Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase isozyme L1 (C) and Vitamin-D binding protein (D) in AD CSF versus control CSF shown as function of the average signal intensity.



FIG. 5. Up-regulation of Dynactin Subunit 1 (A) and down-regulation of Cofilin-1 (B) in AD CSF versus control CSF shown as function of the average signal intensity.



FIG. 6. Sample design showing the TMT10-plex set up used in experiment A (left panel) and experiment B (right panel).





DEFINITIONS

The term “biomarker(s)” includes all biologically relevant forms of the protein identified, including post-translational modifications. For example, the biomarker can be present in a glycosylated, phosphorylated, multimeric, fragmented or precursor form. A biomarker fragment may be naturally occurring or, for example, enzymatically generated and still retaining the biologically active function of the full protein. Fragments will typically be at least about 10 amino acids, usually at least about 50 amino acids in length, and can be as long as 300 amino acids in length or longer.


The term “canonical sequence” is used herein as to refer to the most prevalent sequence and/or the most similar sequence among orthologous species. In particular, unless otherwise specified, the canonical sequence refers herein to the human sequence.


The term “KEGG pathway” refers to a collection of manually drawn pathway maps representing molecular interactions and reaction networks for metabolism, genetic information processing, environmental information processing, cellular processes, organismal systems, human diseases and drug development. “KEGG pathways mapping” is the process to map molecular datasets, especially large-scale datasets in genomics, transcriptomics, proteomics, and metabolomics, to the KEGG pathway maps for biological interpretation of higher-level systemic functions; (http://www.genome.jp/kegg/pathway.html).


The term “concentration or amount” refers to the relative concentration or amount of biomarker in the sample, for example as determined by LC-MS/MS label free quantification approaches such as area under the curve and spectral counting.


The term “comparing” or “compare” or grammatical equivalents thereof, means measuring the relative concentration or amount of a biomarker in a sample relative to other samples (for example protein concentrations or amounts stored in proprietary or public database).


The term “reference concentration or amount” or “reference value” refers to, but it is not limited to, protein concentrations or amounts stored in proprietary or public databases. The “reference concentration or amount” may have been obtained from a large screening of patients, or by reference to a known or previously determined correlation between such a determination and clinical information in control patients. For example, the reference values may be determined by comparison to the concentration or amount of the biomarkers in a control subject, for example a healthy person (i.e. without dementia) of similar age and gender as the subject. Alternatively, the reference values are values which can be found in literature such as the ApoE ε4 allele presence whereby the presence or absence of the mutations at position 112 and 158 represent the reference to be compared to, or like the levels of total tau (T-tau)>350 ng/L, phospho-tau (P-tau)>80 ng/L and Aβ42<530 ng/L in the CSF (Hansson O, et al., Lancet Neurol. 2006, 5:228-34). In addition, the reference values may have been obtained from the same subject at one or more time points which precede in time the test time point. Such earlier sample may be taken one week or more, one month or more, three months or more, most preferably six months or more before the date of the test time point. In some embodiments, multiple earlier samples may be compared in a longitudinal manner and the slope of change in biomarker expression may be calculated as a correlate of cognitive decline. The reference value or reference level can be an absolute value; a relative value; a value that has an upper or a lower limit; a range of values; an average value; a median value, a mean value, or a value as compared to a particular control or baseline value.


According to the present invention, the level of a biomarker is increased when the level of said biomarker in a sample is higher than a reference value. The levels of a biomarker are considered to be higher than its reference value when it is at least 1.5%, at least 2%, at least 5%, at least 10%, at least 15%, at least 20%, at least 25%, at least 30%, at least 35%, at least 40%, at least 45%, at least 50%, at least 55%, at least 60%, at least 65%, at least 70%, at least 75%, at least 80%: at least 85%, at least 90%, at least 95%, at least 100%, at least 110%, at least 120%, at least 130%, at least 140%, at least 150% or more higher than the reference value.


Likewise, in the context of the present invention, the level of a biomarker is decreased when the level of said biomarker in a sample is lower than a reference value. The levels of a biomarker are considered to be lower than its reference value when it is at least 5%, at least 10%, at least 15%, at least 20%, at least 25%, at least 30%, at least 35%, at least 40%, at least 45%, at least 50%, at least 55%, at least 60%, at least 65%, at least 70%, at least 75%, at least 80%: at least 85%, at least 90%, at least 95%, at least 100%, at least 110%, at least 120%, at least 130%, at least 140%, at least 150% or more lower than the reference value.


The term “control” or as used herein “non AD control” or “non AD subject” refers to a tissue sample or a bodily fluid sample taken from a human or non-human subject diagnosed or presenting symptoms of a cognitive abnormality but defined, with respect to the existing biochemical tests, as non AD subjects.


The term “antibody” includes polyclonal antiserum, monoclonal antibodies, fragments of antibodies such as single chain and Fab fragments, and genetically engineered antibodies. The antibodies may be chimeric or of a single species.


The terms “selected reaction monitoring”, “SRM” and “MRM” means a mass spectrometry assay whereby precursor ions of known mass-to-charge ratio representing known biomarkers are preferentially targeted for analysis by tandem mass spectrometry in an ion trap or triple quadrupole mass spectrometer. During the analysis the parent ion is fragmented and the number of daughter ions of a second predefined mass-to-charge ratio is counted. Typically, an equivalent precursor ion bearing a predefined number of stable isotope substitutions but otherwise chemically identical to the target ion is included in the method to act as a quantitative internal standard.


The term “isolated”, or grammatical equivalents thereof, means throughout this specification, that the protein, antibody, polynucleotide or chemical molecule as the case may be, exists in a physical milieu distinct from that in which it may occur in nature.


As used herein, the term “subject” includes any human or non-human animal. The term “non-human animal” includes all vertebrates, e.g., mammals and non-mammals, such as non-human primates, rodents, sheep, dogs, cats, horses, cows, chickens, amphibians, reptiles, etc.


The term “treat”, “treating”, “treatment”, “prevent”, “preventing” or “prevention”, or grammatical equivalents thereof, includes therapeutic treatments, prophylactic treatments and applications in which one reduces the risk that a subject will develop a disorder or other risk factor. Treatment does not require the complete curing of a disorder and encompasses the reduction of the symptoms or underlying risk factors.


The term “diagnosis”, or grammatical equivalents thereof, as used herein, includes the provision of any information concerning the existence or presence, non-existence or absence or probability of the disorder in a patient. It further includes the provision of information concerning the type or classification of the disorder or of symptoms which are or may be experienced in connection with it. This may include, for example, diagnosis of the severity of the disorder. It encompasses prognosis of the medical course of the disorder, for example its duration, severity and the course of progression from mild cognitive impairment (MCI) to AD or other dementias.


The term “staging”, or grammatical equivalents thereof, as used herein, means identifying in a subject the stage of a neurocognitive disorder, in particular AD. For example, AD is characterised by 3 stage or 7 stages, depending on the diagnostic framework used. The Global Dementia Scale is one such measure of global function. It is measured by assessment of severity including cognition and function against a standardised set of severity criteria.


The term “efficacy” indicates the capacity for beneficial change of a given intervention (e.g. a drug, medical device, surgical procedure, etc.). If efficacy is established, that intervention is likely to be at least as good as other available interventions, to which it will have been compared. The term “efficacy” and “effectiveness” are used herein interchangeably.


The term “comprising” indicates that the subject includes all the elements listed, but may, optionally, also include additional, unnamed elements (i.e. open).


The term “and/or” where used herein is to be taken as specific disclosure of each of the two specified features or components with or without the other. For example “A and/or B” is to be taken as specific disclosure of each of (i) A, (ii) B and (iii) A and B, just as if each is set out individually herein.


Unless the context dictates otherwise, the definitions of the features/terms set out above are not limited to any particular aspect or embodiment of the invention and apply equally to all aspects and embodiments which are described herein.


Abbreviations

CSF (cerebrospinal fluid); LBD (Lewy body dementia); FTD (fronto-temporal dementia); VaD (vascular dementia); ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis); CJD (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease); CNS (central nervous system); LPS (lipopolysaccharide); INFγ (interferon-gamma); TMT® (Tandem Mass Tag®); TEAB (Tetra-ethylamonium Bicarbonate), SDS (Sodium dodecyl sulfate); TCEP (Tris(2-carboxyethyl)phosphine); ACN (Acetonitril); PGM1 (phosphoglucomutase 1); TMS4 (Thymosin beta-4).


DETAILED DESCRIPTION

The brains of patients with AD are characterized by amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary “tangles”. Numerous lines of genetic, epidemiologic, and pathologic evidence point to the amyloid precursor protein and its proteolytic product, amyloid β-peptide (Aβ), as central players in AD etiology (Selkoe D J, Physiol. Rev. 2001, 81:741-66). While plaques and tangles are most often associated with the disease, a third pathological feature “gliosis” or inflammation of the brain is also much more integral to AD patho-etiology than once appreciated.


Early events in neurodegenerative pathology, including those typical of AD, involves activation of microglial cells (Mandrekar S et al., CNS Neurol Disord Drug Targets. 2010, 9:156-67). Much interest has been focused on the role of microglia in neurodegenerative diseases in recent times due to an increasing number of genetic and biomarker discovery programs and growing evidence suggesting that inflammation has a role in disease pathogenesis (Wisniewski H M, et al., Acta Neuropathol. 1992, 84:117-27).


Microglia are a type of glial cell and are the resident macrophage-like cells of the central nervous system (CNS) (Mandrekar S et al., CNS Neurol Disord Drug Targets. 2010, 9:156-67). Within the CNS, microglial cells perform a variety of different functions related to the immune response and the maintenance of cellular homeostasis. Microglia sense the environment around them, can be activated by various factors and referee neuroinflammatory and neuroprotective responses in the brain, responding to the formation of amyloid plaques in brains of AD patients. This activation can take different forms, and the so called M1 activation state causes the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNF-α, IL-1β and reactive oxygen/nitrogen species ROS/NOS (Henkel J, Neuroimmune Pharmacol. 2009, 4:389-98). This ultimately may cause or increase neuronal damage.


There appears to be different mechanisms of microglial activation, including in vivo intrinsic regulation, Aβ phagocytosis, and microglial Aβ receptor complex (Mandrekar S et al., CNS Neurol Disord Drug Targets. 2010, 9:156-67).


The present inventors hypothesize that, during the early stage of AD pathology, activated microglia will secrete distinct proteins into the brain. Such proteins would then transfer into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and other biological fluids and could be identified and validated as biomarkers for early AD pathology.


1. Biomarker Panels and Methods of Using Thereof

The present invention relates to such novel biomarkers and their use in methods for diagnosing, staging and assessing the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder, in particular Alzheimer's disease (AD).


The biomarker panels disclosed herein represent a peripheral signal that reflects events and pathways modulation in brain tissue that could not be tested by biopsy or other invasive tests. Because the biomarker panels reflect the neuroinflammation resulting from microglia activation in AD subject, they represent ideal measurable indicators of the disease at an early stage.


The biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2.


Human phosphoglucomutase 1 (PMG1; P36871) is an isozyme of phosphoglucomutase (PGM) and belongs to the phosphohexose mutase family. There are several PGM isozymes, which are encoded by different genes and catalyse the transfer of phosphate between the 1 and 6 positions of glucose. Mutations in this gene cause glycogen storage disease type 14. Alternatively spliced transcript variants encoding different isoforms have been identified.


Human thymosin beta-4 (TMSB4X; P62328) plays an important role in the organization of the cytoskeleton. It binds to and sequesters actin monomers (G-actin) and therefore inhibits actin polymerization.


The biomarker panel may also comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 and thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2.


The biomarker panel may also comprise an isoform or a variant or a fragment of phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1; and/or a variant or a fragment of thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2.


An isoform is described herein as an alternative protein sequence with respect to the canonical sequence. Isoforms can be generated from the same gene by a single or by the combination of alternative promoter usage, alternative splicing, alternative initiation and ribosomal frameshifting.


A variant is described herein as to include natural variants such as (naturally occurring) polymorphisms, variations between strains, isolates or cultivars, disease-associated mutations and RNA editing events. A variant is generally reported as the amino acid change with respect to the canonical sequence. Most naturally occurring polymorphisms (also called single amino acid polymorphisms or SAPs) are due to a single nucleotide change at the codon level. RNA editing events include conversion, insertion and deletion of nucleotides.


A fragment is described herein as the result of proteolytic (enzymatic or else) cleavage of a protein. Fragments may be the results of natural proteolytic cleavage for example fragments generated during the activation of complement, the clotting cascade, or from enzymatic cleavage of matrix proteins. Alternatively, fragments may be generated in-vivo and/or in-vitro for example with proteases.


In one embodiment, the variant of phosphoglucomutase 1 comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO: 1 and wherein

    • a) threonine at position 19 is replaced by alanine; or
    • b) asparagine at position 38 is replaced by tyrosine; or
    • c) glutamine at position 41 is replaced by arginine; or
    • d) aspartic acid at position 62 is replaced by histamine; or
    • e) lysine at position 68 is replaced by methionine; or
    • f) isoleucine at position 88 is replaced by valine; or
    • g) threonine at position 115 is replaced by alanine; or
    • h) glycine at position 121 is replaced by arginine; or
    • i) arginine at position 221 is replaced by cysteine; or
    • j) aspartic acid at position 263 is replaced by glycine or tyrosine; or
    • k) glycine at position 291 is replaced by arginine; or
    • l) glycine at position 330 is replaced by arginine; or
    • m) glutamic acid at position 377 is replaced by lysine; or
    • n) glutamic acid at position 388 is replaced by lysine; or
    • o) tyrosine at position 420 is replaced by histidine; or
    • p) valine at position 501 is replaced by isoleucine; or
    • q) leucine at position 516 is replaced by proline; or
    • r) methionine at position 1 is N-acetylmethionine; or
    • s) lysine at position 16 is N6-acetyllysine; or
    • t) serine at position 117 is phosphoserine; or
    • u) lysine at position 349 is N6-acetyllysine; or
    • v) tyrosine at position 353 is phosphotyrosine; or
    • w) lysine at position 419 is N6-succinyllysine; or
    • x) threonine at position 467 is phosphothreonine; or
    • y) threonine at position 507 is phosphothreonine.



FIG. 1 shows the human sequence of human phosphoglucomutase 1 (SEQ ID NO:1); flagged by symbol □ are those amino acids that are replaced with a different amino acid in isoforms of human phosphoglucomutase 1 as indicated above in a) to q). Amino acids flagged by a * are those amino acids which are replaced by modified amino acids in isoforms of human phosphoglucomutase 1 as indicated above in r) to y).


In another embodiment the isoform of phosphoglucomutase 1 comprises or has the amino acid sequence of


a) SEQ ID NO:3 (isoform 2) and wherein methionine 1 is N-acetylmethionine; or


b) SEQ ID NO:1 from amino acids 198 to 562 (isoform 3).


In another embodiment the fragment of phosphoglucomutase 1 comprises or has the amino acid sequence of any one of SEQ ID NO: 6, SEQ ID NO: 7, SEQ ID NO: 8, SEQ ID NO: 9, or SEQ ID NO: 10; or SEQ ID NO: 11; or SEQ ID NO: 12; or SEQ ID NO: 13.


In another embodiment the variant of thymosin beta-4 comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO: 2 and

    • a) lysine at position 12 is replaced by proline; or
    • b) serine at position 16 replaced by alanine; or
    • c) leucine at position 18 is replaced by alanine or proline; or
    • d) serine at position 2 is N-acetylserine; or
    • e) lysine at position 26 is N6-acetyllysine; or
    • f) lysine at position 9 is N6-acetyllysine.



FIG. 2 shows the sequence human of thymosin beta-4 (SEQ ID NO:2); flagged by symbol □ are those amino acids that are replaced with a different amino acid in isoforms of human thymosin beta-4 as indicated in a) to c) in the previous paragraph. Amino acids flagged by a * are those amino acids which are replaced by modified amino acids in isoforms of human thymosin beta-4 as indicated above in d) to f) in the previous paragraph.


In another embodiment the fragment of thymosin beta-4 comprises or has the amino acid sequence of any one of SEQ ID NO: 14, SEQ ID NO: 15, or SEQ ID NO: 16.


As shown later herein in the experimental section, the biomarker panels disclosed herein have been identified as a set of upregulated proteins found in the CSF of AD patients with respect to individual who present mild cognitive impairment but are not diagnosed with AD. In general clinical practice, biomarkers are measured as a set of at least 2, preferably at least 3 or 4.


Therefore, the biomarker panel according to the invention may further comprise ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1 (UCH-L1; D6R956) which comprises or has an amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:4 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or vitamin D binding protein (VBPD; D6RBJ7) which comprises or has an amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO: 5 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof.


Examples of isoforms, variants or fragments of ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1 or vitamin D binding protein can be found in publically accessible databases such as Uniprot.


In one embodiment, the fragment of ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1 has or comprises the sequence as shown in SEQ ID NO:17. In another embodiment, the fragment of vitamin D binding protein has or comprises the sequence as shown in SEQ ID NO:18.


Hence, in one embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:4 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof and/or vitamin D binding protein comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO: 5 or an isoform or variant or a fragment thereof.


The biomarker panel may further comprise one or more biomarkers selected from proteins involved in a KEGG pathway wherein the KEGG pathway is selected from the group of complement and coagulation cascade, or glycolysis/glycogenesis, or prion disease, or amino and nucleotide sugar metabolism, or antigen processing and presentation, or extracellular matrix-receptor interaction, or focal adhesion, or regulation of actin cytoskeleton or alanine/aspartate/glutamate metabolism.


The biomarker panel may further comprise at least one, optionally two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In one embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, optionally two or more biomarkers selected from Table 1 or fragments thereof.











TABLE 1





Uniprot




ID
Protein Name
All Uniprot matches







K7EJ74
116 kDa U5 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein
K7EJ74; Q15029-3; K7EP67; Q15029; Q15029-2



component


B4DJF2
14-3-3 protein epsilon (cDNA FLJ51975,
B4DJF2; I3L3T1; P62258



moderately similar to 14-3-3 protein epsilon



(14-3-3E))


E5RH77
40S ribosomal protein S14
E5RH77; H0YB22; P62263


M0R210
40S ribosomal protein S16 (Ribosomal
M0R210; P62249



protein S16, isoform CRA_a)


P63220
40S ribosomal protein S21
P63220; Q8WVC2


D6R9B6
40S ribosomal protein S3a (Ribosomal
D6R9B6; D6RAT0; D6RG13; E9PFI5; F5H4F9; H0Y9Y4;



protein S3A, isoform CRA_e)
P61247; D6RB09


B5MCP9
40S ribosomal protein S7
B5MCP9; P62081


P10809
60 kDa heat shock protein, mitochondrial
E7ESH4; E7EXB4; P10809



(60 kDa chaperonin) (Chaperonin 60)



(CPN60) (Heat shock protein 60) (HSP-60)



(Hsp60) (HuCHA60) (Mitochondrial matrix



protein P1) (P60 lymphocyte protein)


P30050
60S ribosomal protein L12
P30050; P30050-2


H0YKD8
60S ribosomal protein L28
H0YKD8; H0YLP6; H0YMF4; P46779; P46779-2; P46779-




3; P46779-4; P46779-5


C9K025
60S ribosomal protein L35a
C9K025; F8WB72; F8WBS5; P18077


P11021
78 kDa glucose-regulated protein (GRP-78)
P11021



(Endoplasmic reticulum lumenal



Ca(2+)-binding protein grp78) (Heat shock



70 kDa protein 5) (Immunoglobulin heavy



chain-binding protein) (BiP)


A6NL76
Actin, alpha skeletal muscle
A6NL76; B8ZZJ2; C9JTX5; C9JUM1; F6QUT6; F8WB63;




G5E9R0; I3L1U9; I3L3R2; J3KT65; K7EM38;




P60709; P62736; P63261; P63267; P68032; P68133;




Q562R1; Q5T8M7; Q5T8M8; C9JFL5; C9JZR7;




E7EVS6


P01009
Alpha-1-antitrypsin (Alpha-1 protease
P01009; P01009-2



inhibitor) (Alpha-1-antiproteinase) (Serpin



A1) [Cleaved into: Short peptide from AAT



(SPAAT)]


P02765
Alpha-2-HS-glycoprotein
P02765



(Alpha-2-Z-globulin)



(Ba-alpha-2-glycoprotein) (Fetuin-A)



[Cleaved into: Alpha-2-HS-glycoprotein



chain A; Alpha-2-HS-glycoprotein chain B]


F5GXS2
Alpha-actinin-4
F5GXS2; H0YJ11; H0YJW3; H7C144; H7C5W8; H9KV75;




O43707; O43707-2; O43707-3; P12814; P12814-




2; P12814-3; P12814-4


P06733
Alpha-enolase (EC 4.2.1.11)
P06733; P06733-2



(2-phospho-D-glycerate hydro-lyase)



(C-myc promoter-binding protein) (Enolase



1) (MBP-1) (MPB-1) (Non-neural enolase)



(NNE) (Phosphopyruvate hydratase)



(Plasminogen-binding protein)


J3KMX3
Alpha-fetoprotein
J3KMX3; P02771


E9PEV0
Amyloid beta A4 protein*
E9PEV0; P05067; P05067-11; P05067-2; P05067-




3; P05067-4; P05067-5; P05067-6; P05067-7; P05067-




8; P05067-9


E9PK76
Amyloid-like protein 2
E9PK76; E9PQS3; Q06481; Q06481-2; Q06481-3;




Q06481-4; Q06481-5; Q06481-6; E9PSC7


D6RBE9
Annexin
D6RBE9; D6RBL5; P08758


A8MUN2
Apolipoprotein B-100
A8MUN2; P04114


P00505
Aspartate aminotransferase, mitochondrial
P00505-2; P00505



(mAspAT) (EC 2.6.1.1) (EC 2.6.1.7) (Fatty



acid-binding protein) (FABP-1) (Glutamate



oxaloacetate transaminase 2) (Kynurenine



aminotransferase 4) (Kynurenine



aminotransferase IV)



(Kynurenine--oxoglutarate transaminase 4)



(Kynurenine--oxoglutarate transaminase IV)



(Plasma membrane-associated fatty



acid-binding protein) (FABPpm)



(Transaminase A)


Q9NVP1
ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX18 (EC
Q9NVP1



3.6.4.13) (DEAD box protein 18)



(Myc-regulated DEAD box protein) (MrDb)


O75531
Barrier-to-autointegration factor (Breakpoint
O75531



cluster region protein 1) [Cleaved into:



Barrier-to-autointegration factor,



N-terminally processed]


F5H6I0
Beta-2-microglobulin form pl 5.3
F5H6I0; H0YLF3; P61769


P80723
Brain acid soluble protein 1 (22 kDa
P80723; P80723-2; U3KQP0



neuronal tissue-enriched acidic protein)



(Neuronal axonal membrane protein



NAP-22)


P04003
C4b-binding protein alpha chain (C4bp)
P04003



(Proline-rich protein) (PRP)


F8VPD4
CAD protein
F8VPD4; H7C2E4; P27708


E7EMB3
Calmodulin
E7EMB3; E7ETZ0; H0Y7A7; P62158; G3V361; Q96HY3


P04040
Catalase (EC 1.11.1.6)
P04040


B4DRT0
cDNA FLJ50184, highly similar to
B4DRT0; E9PC52; H0YCT5; H0YDK2; H0YEU5; H0YF10;



Histone-binding protein RBBP4
Q09028; Q09028-2; Q09028-3; Q09028-4;




Q16576; Q16576-2; Q5JP02


B4DY72
cDNA FLJ52360, highly similar to
B4DY72; Q92598-4; Q92598; Q92598-2; Q92598-3



Heat-shock protein 105 kDa


B4E3Q1
cDNA FLJ61580, highly similar to
B4E3Q1; O94985; O94985-2; Q5SR54



Calsyntenin-1


P62633
Cellular nucleic acid-binding protein (CNBP)
P62633-7; P62633; P62633-2; P62633-3; P62633-



(Zinc finger protein 9)
4; P62633-5; P62633-6; P62633-8


Q9Y696
Chloride intracellular channel protein 4
Q9Y696



(Intracellular chloride ion channel protein



p64H1)


P12259
Coagulation factor V (Activated protein C
P12259



cofactor) (Proaccelerin, labile factor)



[Cleaved into: Coagulation factor V heavy



chain; Coagulation factor V light chain]


E9PGP2
Coagulation factor XI
E9PGP2; P03951; P03951-2; X6R3B1


J3KR35
Coiled-coil domain containing 12, isoform
J3KR35; Q8WUD4



CRA_a (Coiled-coil domain-containing



protein 12)


P01031
Complement C5 (C3 and PZP-like
P01031



alpha-2-macroglobulin domain-containing



protein 4) [Cleaved into: Complement C5



beta chain; Complement C5 alpha chain;



C5a anaphylatoxin; Complement C5 alpha′



chain]


P10643
Complement component C7
P10643


F5GX68
Cytosine-specific methyltransferase (EC
F5GX68; P26358; P26358-2; P26358-3



2.1.1.37)


E5RIA2
Ectonucleotide
E5RIA2; E7EUF1; Q13822; Q13822-2; Q13822-3



pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family



member 2


Q9H4M9
EH domain-containing protein 1 (PAST
Q9H4M9; Q9NZN3



homolog 1) (hPAST1) (Testilin)


A6PW80
Elongation factor 1-alpha 1
P68104; Q05639; Q5JR01; Q5VTE0; A6PW80


K7EM90
Enolase (EC 4.2.1.11)
K7EM90; P06733; P06733-2


P47813
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 1A,
P47813; X6RAC9



X-chromosomal (eIF-1A X isoform)



(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4C)



(eIF-4C)


C9JQN7
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3
C9JQN7; P55884; P55884-2



subunit B


O60841
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5B
O60841



(eIF-5B) (Translation initiation factor IF-2)


Q15024
Exosome complex component RRP42
Q15024



(Exosome component 7) (Ribosomal



RNA-processing protein 42) (p8)


O14980
Exportin-1 (Exp1) (Chromosome region
O14980



maintenance 1 protein homolog)


B1AK85
F-actin-capping protein subunit beta (cDNA
B1AK85; B1AK87; B1AK88; F6Q0E3; F6USW4; P47756;



FLJ43095 fis, clone CORDB2000541,
P47756-2



highly similar to F-actin capping protein



subunit beta)


P02671
Fibrinogen alpha chain [Cleaved into:
P02671; P02671-2



Fibrinopeptide A; Fibrinogen alpha chain]


C9JC84
Fibrinogen gamma chain
C9JC84; C9JEU5; P02679; P02679-2


E9PHF0
Filamin-A
E9PHF0; P21333; P21333-2; Q5HY54


F8WE98
Filamin-A
F8WE98; O75369; O75369-2; O75369-3; O75369-




4; O75369-5; O75369-6; O75369-8; O75369-9; P21333;




P21333-2; Q14315; Q14315-2; Q5HY54


E7EN95
Filamin-B
E7EN95; O75369; O75369-2; O75369-3; O75369-




4; O75369-5; O75369-6; O75369-7; O75369-8; O75369-9


H3BPS8
Fructose-bisphosphate aldolase A
H3BPS8; H3BQN4; H3BR04; H3BU78; J3KPS3; P04075;




P04075-2


H3BMQ8
Fructose-bisphosphate aldolase A
H3BMQ8; H3BQN4; H3BR04; H3BUH7; J3KPS3; P04075


P17931
Galectin-3 (Gal-3) (35 kDa lectin)
P17931



(Carbohydrate-binding protein 35) (CBP 35)



(Galactose-specific lectin 3)



(Galactoside-binding protein) (GALBP)



(IgE-binding protein) (L-31)



(Laminin-binding protein) (Lectin L-29)



(Mac-2 antigen)


P06396
Gelsolin (AGEL) (Actin-depolymerizing
P06396



factor) (ADF) (Brevin)


E7EUT5
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
E7EUT5; P04406; P04406-2



dehydrogenase (EC 1.2.1.12)


B5MDF5
GTP-binding nuclear protein Ran (RAN,
B5MDF5; H0YFC6; J3KQE5; P62826



member RAS oncogene family, isoform



CRA_c)


H0Y300
Haptoglobin
H0Y300; H3BS21; J3QLC9; J3QR68; P00738; P00739;




P00739-2; P00738-2


G3V1N2
HCG1745306, isoform CRA_a (Hemoglobin
G3V1N2; P69905



subunit alpha)


A8K7Q2
Heat shock cognate 71 kDa protein (cDNA
A8K7Q2; E7EP94; E9PKE3; E9PNE6; E9PS65; P08107;



FLJ77848)
P08107-2; P11142; P17066; P34931; P54652;




V9GZ37; E9PM13


P08238
Heat shock protein HSP 90-beta (HSP 90)
P08238



(Heat shock 84 kDa) (HSP 84) (HSP84)


E9PEW8
Hemoglobin subunit delta
E9PEW8; E9PFT6; F8W6P5; P02042; P68871


F8VTQ5
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein
F8VTQ5; F8VYN5; F8VZ49; F8W6I7; P09651; P09651-



A1
2; P09651-3; Q32P51


Q00839
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein U
Q00839; Q00839-2; Q5RI18



(hnRNP U) (Scaffold attachment factor A)



(SAF-A) (p120) (pp120)


P22626
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins
P22626; P22626-2



A2/B1 (hnRNP A2/61)


C9J0D1
Histone H2A
C9J0D1; C9J386; P0C0S5; Q71UI9; Q71UI9-2; Q71UI9-




3; Q71UI9-4


Q8N257
Histone H2B type 3-B (H2B type 12)
Q8N257; Q96A08; Q99880


P01871
Ig mu chain C region
P01871; P01871-2; P04220


Q9Y6R7
IgGFc-binding protein (Fcgamma-binding
Q9Y6R7



protein antigen) (FcgammaBP)


Q15181
Inorganic pyrophosphatase (EC 3.6.1.1)
Q15181; Q5SQT6



(Pyrophosphate phospho-hydrolase)



(PPase)


Q16270
Insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 7
Q16270; Q16270-2



(IBP-7) (IGF-binding protein 7) (IGFBP-7)



(IGFBP-rP1) (MAC25 protein)



(PGI2-stimulating factor)



(Prostacyclin-stimulating factor)



(Tumor-derived adhesion factor) (TAF)


F5H7E1
Inter-alpha-trypsin inhibitor heavy chain H1*
F5H7E1; F8WAS2; P19827


E7ET33
Inter-alpha-trypsin inhibitor heavy chain H3
E7ET33; Q06033; Q06033-2


O75874
Isocitrate dehydrogenase [NADP]
O75874



cytoplasmic (IDH) (EC 1.1.1.42) (Cytosolic



NADP-isocitrate dehydrogenase) (IDP)



(NADP(+)-specific ICDH) (Oxalosuccinate



decarboxylase)


Q9BR39
Junctophilin-2 (JP-2) (Junctophilin type 2)
Q9BR39; Q9BR39-2


P13645
Keratin, type I cytoskeletal 10
P13645; Q7Z3Y7



(Cytokeratin-10) (CK-10) (Keratin-10) (K10)


K7EMD9
Keratin, type I cytoskeletal 13
K7EMD9; K7ERE3; P13645; P13646; P13646-2; P13646-




3; Q2M2I5


P02533
Keratin, type I cytoskeletal 14
P02533; P08779; P13645; Q7Z3Y7; Q7Z3Y8; Q7Z3Y9;



(Cytokeratin-14) (CK-14) (Keratin-14) (K14)
Q7Z3Z0


A8MT21
Keratin, type I cytoskeletal 15
A8MT21; B3KRA2; C9JM50; C9JTG5; F5GWP8; K7EMS3;




K7EPJ9; P02533; P08727; P08779; P19012;




Q04695


K7EQQ3
Keratin, type I cytoskeletal 9
K7EQQ3; P35527


P04264
Keratin, type II cytoskeletal 1 (67 kDa
P04264



cytokeratin) (Cytokeratin-1) (CK-1) (Hair



alpha protein) (Keratin-1) (K1) (Type-II



keratin Kb1)


F5GY66
Keratin, type II cytoskeletal 1b*
F5GY66; Q7Z794


P35908
Keratin, type II cytoskeletal 2 epidermal
P35908



(Cytokeratin-2e) (CK-2e) (Epithelial



keratin-2e) (Keratin-2 epidermis)



(Keratin-2e) (K2e) (Type-II keratin Kb2)


P04259
Keratin, type II cytoskeletal 6B
P04259; P04264



(Cytokeratin-6B) (CK-6B) (Keratin-6B)



(K6B) (Type-II keratin Kb10)


P01042
Kininogen-1 (Alpha-2-thiol proteinase
P01042; P01042-2; P01042-3



inhibitor) (Fitzgerald factor) (High molecular



weight kininogen) (HMWK)



(Williams-Fitzgerald-Flaujeac factor)



[Cleaved into: Kininogen-1 heavy chain;



T-kinin (Ile-Ser-Bradykinin); Bradykinin



(Kallidin I); Lysyl-bradykinin (Kallidin II);



Kininogen-1 light chain; Low molecular



weight growth-promoting factor]


E7EQB2
Lactotransferrin
E7EQB2; E7ER44; P02788; P02788-2


P49006
MARCKS-related protein (MARCKS-like
P49006



protein 1) (Macrophage myristoylated



alanine-rich C kinase substrate)



(Mac-MARCKS) (MacMARCKS)


Q9NU22
Midasin (MIDAS-containing protein)
Q9NU22


P26038
Moesin (Membrane-organizing extension
P26038



spike protein)


C9JH43
Neuronal cell adhesion molecule
C9JH43; C9JYY6; F8W775; Q92823; Q92823-2; Q92823-




3; Q92823-4; Q92823-5; Q92823-6


O15240
Neurosecretory protein VGF [Cleaved into:
O15240



Neuroendocrine regulatory peptide-1



(NERP-1); Neuroendocrine regulatory



peptide-2 (NERP-2); Antimicrobial peptide



VGF[554-577]]


C9IZL7
Non-POU domain-containing
C9IZL7; C9J4X2; Q15233; Q15233-2; Q8WXF1; Q8WXF1-



octamer-binding protein
2; C9JYS8; X6RDA4


P23515
Oligodendrocyte-myelin glycoprotein
P23515


C9J5S7
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase (EC
C9J5S7; F8WE65; P62937



5.2.1.8)


P62937
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase A
P62937; Q567Q0



(PPlase A) (EC 5.2.1.8) (Cyclophilin A)



(Cyclosporin A-binding protein) (Rotamase



A) [Cleaved into: Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans



isomerase A, N-terminally processed]


P23284
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase B
P23284



(PPlase B) (EC 5.2.1.8) (CYP-S1)



(Cyclophilin B) (Rotamase B) (S-cyclophilin)



(SCYLP)


Q9Y3C6
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase-like 1
Q9Y3C6



(PPlase) (EC 5.2.1.8) (Rotamase PPIL1)


Q06830
Peroxiredoxin-1 (EC 1.11.1.15) (Natural
Q06830



killer cell-enhancing factor A) (NKEF-A)



(Proliferation-associated gene protein)



(PAG) (Thioredoxin peroxidase 2)



(Thioredoxin-dependent peroxide reductase



2)


H7C3T4
Peroxiredoxin-4
H7C3T4; Q13162


B7Z7A9
Phosphoglycerate kinase 1 (EC: 2.7.2.3)
B7Z7A9; E7ERH5; P00558; P07205



(Cell migration-inducing gene 10 protein)



(Primer recognition protein 2) (prp 2)


P18669
Phosphoglycerate mutase 1 (EC 3.1.3.13)
P18669; P36871; P36871-2; P36871-3



(EC 5.4.2.11) (EC 5.4.2.4) (BPG-dependent



PGAM 1) (Phosphoglycerate mutase



isozyme B) (PGAM-B)


H0YGH6
Pregnancy zone protein*
H0YGH6; P01023; P20742; P20742-2


P12004
Proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA)
P12004



(Cyclin)


H0YKK6
Proteasome activator complex subunit 1
H0YKK6; Q06323-3; Q06323; Q06323-2


F5H246
Protein NAMPTL
F5H246; P43490; Q5SYT8


Q15437
Protein transport protein Sec23B
Q15437; Q5QPE1



(SEC23-related protein B)


A6NEC2
Puromycin-sensitive aminopeptidase-like
A6NEC2; A6NEC2-2; B7Z463; E5RJ24; I3L083; E9PLK3;



protein (EC 3.4.11.—)
F5GZY4; H0YAQ6; P55786; E7EWZ2


H0Y825
Putative homeodomain transcription factor 1
H0Y825; Q5TCQ3; Q5TCQ5; Q9UMS5; Q9UMS5-2


A6NM43
Putative T-complex protein 1 subunit
A6NM43; Q96SF2



theta-like 1


H3BQ34
Pyruvate kinase PKM (EC 2.7.1.40)
H3BQ34; H3BT25; H3BTJ2; H3BTN5; H3BUW1; P14618;



(Cytosolic thyroid hormone-binding protein)
P14618-2; P14618-3



(CTHBP) (Opa-interacting protein 3) (OIP-3)



(Pyruvate kinase 2/3) (Pyruvate kinase



muscle isozyme) (Thyroid hormone-binding



protein 1) (THBP1) (Tumor M2-PK) (p58)


A8MSP2
RAB37, member RAS oncogene family,
Q9H082; G3V196; G3V562; J3QSF4; P59190; P59190-



isoform CRA_e (Ras-related protein
2; Q6MZX6; Q9NRW1-2; C9JB90; C9JU14; H0YGL6;



Rab-37) (cDNA FLJ45130 fis, clone
H7BYW1; J3KR73; P20340; P20340-2; P20340-



BRAWH3037428, highly similar to Homo
4; Q14964; Q9NRW1; A8MSP2; A8MTC6; A8MZI4;




sapiens RAB37, member RAS oncogene

B4DEK7; B7Z3L0; C9JFM7; Q86YS6-2; E9PI18;



family (RAB37), transcript variant 3, mRNA)
E9PJQ5; E9PMJ1; E9PNB9; E9PRF7; E9PS06;




F5GY21; F5H157; H0YDK7; H0YMN7; H0YNE9;




M0R0X1; M0R1E0; M0R257; O95716; P20336; P20337;




P20338; P61006; P61018; P61018-2; P61026;




P61106; P62820; Q15286; Q15286-2; Q15771; Q6IQ22;




Q15771-2; Q6PIK3; Q86YS6; Q92928; Q92930;




Q96AX2; Q96AX2-2; Q96AX2-3; Q96AX2-4;




Q96DA2; Q96E17; Q9H0U4; X6RFL8


P60602
Reactive oxygen species modulator 1 (ROS
P60602



modulator 1) (Epididymis tissue protein Li



175) (Glyrichin) (Mitochondrial targeting



GxxxG motif protein) (MTGM) (Protein



MGR2 homolog)


A8M172
Reticulon
B7Z4M1; F5H617; O95197; O95197-2; O95197-3;




O95197-4; O95197-5; O95197-6; O95197-7; A8MT72;




Q16799; Q16799-2; Q16799-3


P02753
Retinol-binding protein 4 (Plasma
P02753; Q5VY30



retinol-binding protein) (PRBP) (RBP)



[Cleaved into: Plasma retinol-binding



protein(1-182); Plasma retinol-binding



protein(1-181); Plasma retinol-binding



protein(1-179); Plasma retinol-binding



protein(1-176)]


G3V357
Ribonuclease pancreatic
G3V357; P07998


B3KQV6
Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A
B3KQV6; E9PH38; F5H3X9; P30153



65 kDa regulatory subunit A alpha isoform



(cDNA FLJ33169 fis, clone



ADRGL2000384, highly similar to



Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A



65 kDa regulatory subunit A alpha isoform)


P35542
Serum amyloid A-4 protein (Constitutively
P35542



expressed serum amyloid A protein)



(C-SAA)


J3KPM9
Signal transducer and activator of
J3KPM9; P42224; P42224-2



transcription


H3BQ21
Signal-regulatory protein beta-1 isoform 3
H3BQ21; H3BSK5; H3BU43; P78324; P78324-2; P78324-




4; Q5TFQ8


Q9H2G2
STE20-like serine/threonine-protein kinase
Q9H2G2; Q9H2G2-2



(STE20-like kinase) (hSLK) (EC 2.7.11.1)



(CTCL tumor antigen se20-9)



(STE20-related serine/threonine-protein



kinase) (STE20-related kinase)



(Serine/threonine-protein kinase 2)


P04179
Superoxide dismutase [Mn], mitochondrial
P04179; P04179-2; P04179-4



(EC 1.15.1.1)


P07996
Thrombospondin-1
P07996; P07996-2


P62328
Thymosin beta-4 (T beta-4) (Fx) [Cleaved
P62328; Q5T4B6



into: Hematopoietic system regulatory



peptide (Seraspenide)]


Q13263
Transcription intermediary factor 1-beta
Q13263; Q13263-2



(TIF1-beta) (E3 SUMO-protein ligase



TRIM28) (EC 6.3.2.—) (KRAB-associated



protein 1) (KAP-1) (KRAB-interacting



protein 1) (KRIP-1) (Nuclear corepressor



KAP-1) (RING finger protein 96) (Tripartite



motif-containing protein 28)


P02766
Transthyretin (ATTR) (Prealbumin) (TBPA)
P02766


P60174
Triosephosphate isomerase (TIM) (EC
P60174; P60174-1



5.3.1.1) (Triose-phosphate isomerase)


Q08J23
tRNA (cytosine(34)-C(5))-methyltransferase
Q08J23; Q5SWD1



(EC 2.1.1.203) (Myc-induced SUN



domain-containing protein) (Misu)



(NOL1/NOP2/Sun domain family member 2)



(Substrate of AIM1/Aurora kinase B) (tRNA



(cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase) (tRNA



methyltransferase 4 homolog) (hTrm4)


G5EA42
Tropomodulin 2 (Neuronal), isoform CRA_a
G5EA42; H0YMA2; Q9NZR1; Q9NZR1-2



(Tropomodulin-2)


F8W696
Truncated apolipoprotein A-I
F8W696; P02647


C9J2C0
Tubulin alpha-8 chain
F5H5D3; F8VQQ4; P68363; Q13748; Q13748-2; Q6PEY2;




Q71U36; Q71U36-2; Q9BQE3; F8VVB9; P68366-




2; C9J2C0; C9JDS9; P68366; Q9NY65; Q9NY65-2


P43403
Tyrosine-protein kinase ZAP-70 (EC
P43403; P43403-2; P43403-3; P43405; P43405-2;



2.7.10.2) (70 kDa zeta-chain associated
Q8NFD2



protein) (Syk-related tyrosine kinase)


F5GY79
Tyrosine-protein phosphatase non-receptor
F5GY79; F5H0N8; F5H5H9; P29350; P29350-2; P29350-



type 6
3; P29350-4; F5H1Z8


D6R956
Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase
D6R956; D6R974; D6RE83; P09936



isozyme L1


P62979
Ubiquitin-40S ribosomal protein S27a
P62979



(Ubiquitin carboxyl extension protein 80)



[Cleaved into: Ubiquitin; 40S ribosomal



protein S27a]


F5H4L7
Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein
F5H4L7; G3V1N8; O75436; O75436-2; S4R3Q6



26A*


B0YJC4
Vimentin (Vimentin variant 3)
B0YJC4; P08670; P17661


D6RBJ7
Vitamin D-binding protein
D6RBJ7; D6RF20; D6RF35; P02774; P02774-3


B5MCX6
V-set and transmembrane
B5MCX6; F8W8J5; Q8TAG5; Q8TAG5-2; X6RBS5



domain-containing protein 2A


H0YC04
V-type proton ATPase subunit B, brain
H0YC04; P21281



isoform









Table 1 discloses proteins whose peptides were found to be regulated by at least 60% in the activated microglia cell line compared to resting cells and also at least 60% in the CSF of AD patients compared to CSF of non-AD subjects. Uniprot ID=annotated ID during data search; Protein names=protein name/s given to matched sequence; All Uniprot matches=All Uniprot IDs that match to the peptide sequence detected at the time of invention. Asterisk (*) indicates those proteins which were annotated as deleted as the entry has been removed from Uniprot (due to redundancy).


In one embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, or at least two or more, optionally at least three or all biomarkers selected from the group of Peroxiredoxin-1, MARCKS-related protein, Moesin and Actin or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, or at least two or more, optionally at least three or all biomarkers selected from the group of Peroxiredoxin-1, MARCKS-related protein, Moesin, Actin, Protein TMSB4XP4, ApoE, Gelsolin, Secretogranin, Albumin and complement proteins or fragments thereof.


In one embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, optionally two or more biomarkers selected from Table 1 and/or Table 2 or fragments thereof.











TABLE 2





Uniprot




ID
Protein Name
All Uniprot matches







G3V1C1
1,5-anhydro-D-fructose reductase (Aldo-keto
G3V1C1; Q96JD6; Q96JD6-4; P14550



reductase family 1, member C-like 2, isoform



CRA_c)


B8ZZ54
10 kDa heat shock protein, mitochondrial (Heat
B8ZZ54; B8ZZL8; P61604



shock 10 kDa protein 1 (Chaperonin 10), isoform



CRA_h)


P31946
14-3-3 protein beta/alpha (Protein 1054) (Protein
P31946; P31946-2; P61981; Q4VY19; Q4VY20



kinase C inhibitor protein 1) (KCIP-1) [Cleaved



into: 14-3-3 protein beta/alpha, N-terminally



processed]


A2IDB1
14-3-3 protein eta
A2IDB1; B4DJF2; E5RIR4; E7ESK7; E7EVZ2;




E7EX29; E9PD24; E9PG15; F8WEB6; I3L0W5;




I3L3T1; P27348; P31946; P31946-2; P31947;




P31947-2; P61981; P62258; P63104; Q04917;




Q4VY19; Q4VY20; E5RGE1


P61981
14-3-3 protein gamma (Protein kinase C inhibitor
P61981



protein 1) (KCIP-1) [Cleaved into: 14-3-3 protein



gamma, N-terminally processed]


E9PG15
14-3-3 protein theta
E9PG15; P27348


B0AZS6
14-3-3 protein zeta/delta (cDNA, FLJ79516,
B0AZS6; B7Z2E6; E7EX29; H0YB80; P63104;



highly similar to 14-3-3 protein zeta/delta)
P63104-2


P16885
1-phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate
P16885



phosphodiesterase gamma-2 (EC 3.1.4.11)



(Phosphoinositide phospholipase C-gamma-2)



(Phospholipase C-IV) (PLC-IV) (Phospholipase



C-gamma-2) (PLC-gamma-2)


P62333
26S protease regulatory subunit 10B (26S
H0YJC0; H0YJS8; P62332



proteasome AAA-ATPase subunit RPT4)



(Proteasome 26S subunit ATPase 6)



(Proteasome subunit p42)


P62191
26S protease regulatory subunit 4 (P26s4) (26S
P62191-2; P62191



proteasome AAA-ATPase subunit RPT2)



(Proteasome 26S subunit ATPase 1)


E9PKD5
26S protease regulatory subunit 6A
E9PKD5; E9PM69; P17980; R4GNH3; E9PMD8;




E9PN50


P43686
26S protease regulatory subunit 6B (26S
P43686



proteasome AAA-ATPase subunit RPT3)



(MB67-interacting protein) (MIP224)



(Proteasome 26S subunit ATPase 4) (Tat-binding



protein 7) (TBP-7)


B7Z5E2
26S protease regulatory subunit 7#
B7Z5E2; P35998


J3KRP2
26S protease regulatory subunit 8
J3KRP2; J3QLH6; J3QQM1; J3QRR3; J3QSA9;




P62195; P62195-2


C9J9M4
26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit 1
C9J9M4; H7BZR6; Q99460; Q99460-2


E9PL38
26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit
E9PL38; Q9UNM6; Q9UNM6-2



13


O00487
26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit
O00487



14 (EC 3.4.19.—) (26S proteasome regulatory



subunit RPN11) (26S proteasome-associated



PAD1 homolog 1)


H7C1H2
26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit 2
Q13200-3; Q13200-2; H7C1H2; Q13200


B4DT72
26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit
B4DT72; H0YGV8; O43242



3 (CD FLJ54148, highly similar to 26S



proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit 3)


Q16401
26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit
Q16401; Q16401-2; Q4VXG9



5 (26S protease subunit S5 basic) (26S



proteasome subunit S5B)


Q13442
28 kDa heat- and acid-stable phosphoprotein
Q13442



(PDGF-associated protein) (PAP)



(PDGFA-associated protein 1) (PAP1)


O75600
2-amino-3-ketobutyrate coenzyme A ligase,
O75600; O75600-2



mitochondrial (AKB ligase) (EC 2.3.1.29)



(Aminoacetone synthase) (Glycine



acetyltransferase)


A6NF51
3′(2′),5′-bisphosphate nucleotidase 1
A6NF51; O95861-3; O95861-4; O95861; O95861-2


E5RHF4
39S ribosomal protein L15, mitochondrial
E5RHF4; Q9P015


E7ESL0
39S ribosomal protein L22, mitochondrial
E7ESL0; J3KQY1; Q9NWU5; Q9NWU5-2; Q9NWU5-3


B5MD38
3-ketoacyl-CoA thiolase
P55084-2; B5MD38; F5GZQ3; P55084; C9JE81;




C9JEY0


C9JDE9
3-ketoacyl-CoA thiolase, peroxisomal
C9JDE9; H7C131; P09110


F6U211
40S ribosomal protein S10
F6U211; P46783; S4R435


M0QZC5
40S ribosomal protein S11
M0QZC5; M0R1H6; P62280


P25398
40S ribosomal protein S12
P25398


P62277
40S ribosomal protein S13
P62277


K7EJ78
40S ribosomal protein S15
K7EJ78; K7ELC2; K7EM56; K7EQJ5; P62841;




S4R456


I3L3P7
40S ribosomal protein S15a
I3L3P7; P62244


P62269
40S ribosomal protein S18 (Ke-3) (Ke3)
P62269


P39019
40S ribosomal protein S19
M0QXK4; M0QYF7; M0R140; M0R2L9; P39018


E9PQD7
40S ribosomal protein S2
E9PQD7; H0YEN5; P15880


G3XAN0
40S ribosomal protein S20 (Ribosomal protein
G3XAN0; P60866; P60866-2



S20, isoform CRA_a)


D6R9I7
40S ribosomal protein S23
D6R9I7; D6RD47; D6RDJ2; D6RIX0; P62266


E7ETK0
40S ribosomal protein S24
E7ETK0; P62847; P62847-2; P62847-3; P62847-4


P62851
40S ribosomal protein S25
P62851


P62854
40S ribosomal protein S26
P62854; Q5JNZ5


C9J1C5
40S ribosomal protein S27
C9J1C5; H0YMV8; P42677; Q71UM5


P62273
40S ribosomal protein S29
P62273; P62273-2


E9PL09
40S ribosomal protein S3
E9PL09; E9PPU1; E9PSF4; H0YEU2; P23396;




P23396-2


A6NH36
40S ribosomal protein S4, X isoform
A6NH36; C9JEH7; P22090; P62701; Q8TD47


M0QZN2
40S ribosomal protein S5
M0QZN2; M0R0F0; M0R0R2; P46782


A2A3R5
40S ribosomal protein S6
A2A3R5; P62753


P46781
40S ribosomal protein S9 (Ribosomal protein S9,
B5MCT8; C9JM19; P46780



isoform CRA_c)


A6NE09
40S ribosomal protein SA (37 kDa laminin
A6NE09; P08865; C9J9K3



receptor precursor) (37/67 kDa laminin receptor)



(67 kDa laminin receptor) (Laminin receptor 1)



(Laminin-binding protein precursor p40)


F5GZI0
4F2 cell-surface antigen heavy chain
F5GZI0; F5GZS6; J3KPF3; P08195; P08195-




2; P08195-3; P08195-4


P49189
4-trimethylaminobutyraldehyde dehydrogenase
P49189



(TMABADH) (EC 1.2.1.47) (Aldehyde



dehydrogenase E3 isozyme) (Aldehyde



dehydrogenase family 9 member A1) (EC



1.2.1.3) (Gamma-aminobutyraldehyde



dehydrogenase) (EC 1.2.1.19)



(R-aminobutyraldehyde dehydrogenase)


B7Z712
60 kDa heat shock protein, mitochondrial#
B7Z712; C9JCQ4; C9JL19; C9JL25; E7ESH4;




E7EXB4; P10809


F8VQY6
60S acidic ribosomal protein P0
F8VQY6; F8VRK7; F8VS58; F8VU65; F8VWS0;




F8VZS0; G3V210; P05388; P05388-2; Q8NHW5


F8W7C6
60S ribosomal protein L10
A6QRI9; F8W7C6; H7C123; H7C2C5; P27635;




Q96L21; X1WI27


P62906
60S ribosomal protein L10a (CSA-19) (Neural
P62906



precursor cell expressed developmentally



down-regulated protein 6) (NEDD-6)


P62913
60S ribosomal protein L11 (CLL-associated
P62913; P62913-2; Q5VVC8; Q5VVC9



antigen KW-12)


P26373
60S ribosomal protein L13 (Breast basic
J3KS98; P26373; P26373-1



conserved protein 1)


M0QYS1
60S ribosomal protein L13a
M0QYS1; P40429


J3KRB3
60S ribosomal protein L17
J3KRX5; J3QLC8; J3QQT2; J3QS96; P18621;




P18621-2; P18621-3; J3KRB3


F8VYV2
60S ribosomal protein L18
Q07020-2; F8VYV2; G3V203; H0YHA7; J3QQ67;




Q07020


M0R0P7
60S ribosomal protein L18a
M0R0P7; M0R117; M0R1A7; M0R3D6; Q02543


G3V1B3
60S ribosomal protein L21 (Ribosomal protein
G3V1B3; M0R181; P46778



L21, isoform CRA_f)


K7EJT5
60S ribosomal protein L22
K7EJT5; K7EKS7; K7ELC4; K7EMH1; K7EP65;




K7ERI7; P35268


C9JYQ9
60S ribosomal protein L22-like 1
C9JYQ9; H0Y8C2; Q6P5R6


B9ZVP7
60S ribosomal protein L23
B9ZVP7; C9JD32; J3KT29; P62829


A8MUS3
60S ribosomal protein L23a (Ribosomal protein
A8MUS3; H7BY10; K7EJV9; K7EMA7; K7ERT8;



L23a, isoform CRA_a)
P62750


E5RIT6
60S ribosomal protein L26-like 1
E5RIT6; J3QQQ9; J3QQV1; J3QRC4; J3QR17;




P61254; Q9UNX3; J3KTJ8


F8WCR1
60S ribosomal protein L3
F8WCR1; H7C3M2; H7C422; P39023; B5MCW2;




G5E9G0


G5E9G0
60S ribosomal protein L3 (Ribosomal protein L3,
G5E9G0; P39023; Q92901



isoform CRA_e) (Uncharacterized protein)


B7Z4C8
60S ribosomal protein L31 (cDNA FLJ57527,
B7Z4C8; B7Z4E3; B8ZZK4; C9JU56; H7C2W9;



highly similar to 60S ribosomal protein L31)
P62899; P62899-2; P62899-3


D3YTB1
60S ribosomal protein L32
D3YTB1; F8W727; P62910


P49207
60S ribosomal protein L34
P49207


Q9Y3U8
60S ribosomal protein L36
Q9Y3U8


P61927
60S ribosomal protein L37 (G1.16)
P61927


P63173
60S ribosomal protein L38
P63173


H3BM89
60S ribosomal protein L4 (Ribosomal protein L4,
H3BM89; P36578



isoform CRA_a)


P46777
60S ribosomal protein L5
P46777


Q02878
60S ribosomal protein L6 (Neoplasm-related
Q02878



protein C140) (Tax-responsive enhancer



element-binding protein 107) (TaxREB107)


P62424
60S ribosomal protein L7a (PLA-X polypeptide)
P62424; Q5T8U2; Q5T8U3



(Surfeit locus protein 3)


E9PKU4
60S ribosomal protein L8
E9PKZ0; G3V1A1; P62917; E9PKU4


D6RAN4
60S ribosomal protein L9
H0Y9R4; H0Y9V9; P32969; D6RAN4


M0R261
6-phosphogluconolactonase
M0R261; O95336


P11021
78 kDa glucose-regulated protein (GRP-78)
P11021



(Endoplasmic reticulum lumel Ca(2+)-binding



protein grp78) (Heat shock 70 kDa protein 5)



(Immunoglobulin heavy chain-binding protein)



(BiP)


H0YEL7
Acetyl-CoA acetyltransferase, mitochondrial
H0YEL7; P24752


Q5T0Y8
Acid sphingomyelinase-like phosphodiesterase
Q5T0Y8; Q92485; Q92485-2



3b


P60709
Actin, cytoplasmic 1 (Beta-actin) [Cleaved into:
G5E9R0; I3L1U9; I3L3R2; J3KT65; K7EM38;



Actin, cytoplasmic 1, N-terminally processed]
P60709; P63261; E7EVS6; I3L4N7


I3L4N8
Actin, cytoplasmic 2
P60709; P63261; Q6S8J3; I3L4N8


I3L1U9
Actin, cytoplasmic 2, N-terminally processed
I3L1U9; P60709; P63261; I3L4N8


O94805
Actin-like protein 6B (53 kDa BRG1-associated
O94805; O96019; O96019-2



factor B) (Actin-related protein Baf53b)



(ArpNalpha) (BRG1-associated factor 53B)



(BAF53B)


F5H6T1
Actin-related protein 2
F5H6T1; P61160; P61160-2


P61160
Actin-related protein 2 (Actin-like protein 2)
P61160; P61160-2


O15143
Actin-related protein 2/3 complex subunit 1B
C9J4Z7; C9J6C8; C9JBJ7; C9JEY1; C9JTT6;



(Arp2/3 complex 41 kDa subunit) (p41-ARC)
C9K057; O15142


B1ALC0
Actin-related protein 2/3 complex subunit 5
B1ALC0; O15511; O15511-2; Q9BPX5


B4DXW1
Actin-related protein 3 (cDNA FLJ51148, highly
B4DXW1; F5H3P5; P61158



similar to Actin-like protein 3) (cDNA FLJ52434,



highly similar to Actin-like protein 3) (cDNA,



FLJ79112, highly similar to Actin-like protein 3)



(cDNA, FLJ79295, highly similar to Actin-like



protein 3)


G3V3W9
Activator of 90 kDa heat shock protein ATPase
O95433-2; G3V3W9; O95433



homolog 1


B7Z683
Active breakpoint cluster region-related protein
B7Z683; Q12979; Q12979-2; Q12979-4; I3L434;



(cDNA FLJ54747, highly similar to Active
I3NI05; Q12979-3



breakpoint cluster region-related protein)


G3V2U7
Acylphosphatase (EC 3.6.1.7)
G3V2U7; P07311


O95372
Acyl-protein thioesterase 2 (APT-2) (EC 3.1.2.—)
O95372; Q5QPQ0



(Lysophospholipase II) (LPL-II) (LysoPLA II)


B5MDS5
Adenomatous polyposis coli protein 2
B5MDS5; O95996; O95996-2; O95996-3


P23526
Adenosylhomocysteinase (AdoHcyase) (EC
P23526; P23526-2



3.3.1.1) (S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine hydrolase)


E7ERF4
Adenylosuccite lyase
E7ERF4; P30566; P30566-2


G3V232
Adenylosuccite synthetase isozyme 1
G3V232; G3V5D8; Q8N142; Q8N142-2


Q01518
Adenylyl cyclase-associated protein 1 (CAP 1)
Q01518; Q01518-2


H0Y512
Adipocyte plasma membrane-associated protein
H0Y512; Q9HDC9; Q9HDC9-2


P05141
ADP/ATP translocase 2 (ADP, ATP carrier protein
P05141



2) (ADP, ATP carrier protein, fibroblast isoform)



(Adenine nucleotide translocator 2) (ANT 2)



(Solute carrier family 25 member 5) [Cleaved



into: ADP/ATP translocase 2, N-terminally



processed]


I7HJJ0
ADP/ATP translocase 3
I7HJJ0; P05141; P12235; P12236; Q9H0C2;




V9GYG0


B7ZB63
ADP-ribosylation factor 3 (cDNA, FLJ79427,
B7ZB63; C9J1Z8; C9JPM4; F5H0C7; F5H1V1;



highly similar to ADP-ribosylation factor 3)
F5H423; F5H6T5; F8WDB3; P18085; P61204;




P84077; P84085


B0QYR5
ADP-ribosylation factor-binding protein GGA1
B0QYR5; B0QYR6; B0QYR9; B0QYS0; B0QYS1;




B0QYS3; B0QYS5; B7Z1E9; H3BMM6;




H3BPI3; J3KSS7; J3QRP3; J3QRS8; Q6IC75;




Q9NZ52; Q9NZ52-4; Q9UJY4; Q9UJY5; Q9UJY5-3;




Q9UJY5-4; B0QYS2


Q96BM9
ADP-ribosylation factor-like protein 8A
Q96BM9; Q9NVJ2



(ADP-ribosylation factor-like protein 10B) (Novel



small G protein indispensable for equal



chromosome segregation 2)


B4DI85
ADP-ribosylation factor-like protein 8B#
B4DI85; Q9NVJ2; Q96BM9


F8VUB6
Aladin
F8VUB6; F8VZ44; H3BU82; Q9NRG9; Q9NRG9-2


H3BPK7
Alanine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic
H3BPK7; P49588


P14550
Alcohol dehydrogenase [NADP(+)] (EC 1.1.1.2)
P14550; Q5T621; V9GYG2; V9GYP9



(Aldehyde reductase) (Aldo-keto reductase



family 1 member A1)


H0YAG8
Alcohol dehydrogese class-3
H0YAG8; P11766


H0Y2X5
Aldehyde dehydrogenase 1 family, member A3,
H0Y2X5; H0YMG7; O94788; O94788-2; O94788-



isoform CRA_b (Aldehyde dehydrogenase family
3; O94788-4; P00352; P05091; P05091-



1 member A3)
2; P30837; P47895


P05091
Aldehyde dehydrogenase, mitochondrial (EC
P05091; P05091-2; S4R3S4



1.2.1.3) (ALDH class 2) (ALDH-E2) (ALDHI)


B8ZZ75
Aldose 1-epimerase
B8ZZ75; H7C1B5; Q96C23


E9PCX2
Aldose reductase
E9PCX2; E9PEF9; P15121


P15121
Aldose reductase (AR) (EC 1.1.1.21) (Aldehyde
P15121



reductase) (Aldo-keto reductase family 1



member B1)


P02763
Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 1 (AGP 1)
P02763



(Orosomucoid-1) (OMD 1)


P19652
Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2 (AGP 2)
P19652



(Orosomucoid-2) (OMD 2)


P30533
Alpha-2-macroglobulin receptor-associated
P30533



protein (Alpha-2-MRAP) (Low density lipoprotein



receptor-related protein-associated protein 1)



(RAP)


G3V2E8
Alpha-actinin-1
P35609-2; G3V2E8; G3V2W4; G3V2X9; G3V5M4;




H9KV75; P12814; P12814-2; P12814-3;




P12814-4; P35609; G3V2N5


C9J196
Alpha-dystroglycan
Q14118; C9J196; C9JQL4


M0R0I4
Alpha-soluble NSF attachment protein
M0R0I4; M0R2M1; P54920


A6NKB8
Aminopeptidase B
A6NKB8; C9JMZ3; Q9H4A4


B7Z4G8
Amyloid-like protein 1 (cDNA FLJ56046, highly
B7Z4G8; F5GZ08; K7ELK0; K7EQJ4; P51693;



similar to Amyloid-like protein 1
P51693-2



(APLP)(APLP-1))


P04083
Annexin A1 (Annexin I) (Annexin-1) (Calpactin II)
P04083



(Calpactin-2) (Chromobindin-9) (Lipocortin I)



(Phospholipase A2 inhibitory protein) (p35)


B4DDF9
Annexin A4#
B4DDF9; P09525; Q6P452


P01008
Antithrombin-III (ATIII) (Serpin C1)
P01008


C9J1E7
AP-1 complex subunit beta-1
C9J1E7; Q10567; Q10567-2; Q10567-3; Q10567-4


O94973
AP-2 complex subunit alpha-2 (100 kDa coated
O94973; O94973-2; O94973-3; O95782; O95782-2



vesicle protein C) (Adaptor protein complex AP-2



subunit alpha-2) (Adaptor-related protein



complex 2 subunit alpha-2) (Alpha-adaptin C)



(Alpha2-adaptin) (Clathrin assembly protein



complex 2 alpha-C large chain) (Huntingtin yeast



partner J) (Huntingtin-interacting protein 9)



(HIP-9) (Huntingtin-interacting protein J) (Plasma



membrane adaptor HA2/AP2 adaptin alpha C



subunit)


K7EJT8
AP-2 complex subunit beta
K7EJT8; P63010; P63010-2; P63010-3


P02649
Apolipoprotein E (Apo-E)
E7ERP7; E9PEV4; H0Y7L5; P02648


E9PMA0
Apoptosis-inducing factor 1, mitochondrial
E9PMA0; O95831; O95831-2; O95831-3; O95831-5


C9JLV4
Apoptotic protease-activating factor 1
C9JLV4; O14727; O14727-2; O14727-3; O14727-




4; O14727-5; Q53F19; Q53F19-2


P20292
Arachidote 5-lipoxygese-activating protein
P20292



(FLAP) (MK-886-binding protein)


B0YIW6
Archain 1, isoform CRA_a (Coatomer subunit
B0YIW6; P48444; P48444-2



delta) (Coatomer subunit delta variant 2)


O43150
Arf-GAP with SH3 domain, ANK repeat and PH
O43150; O43150-2



domain-containing protein 2 (Development and



differentiation-enhancing factor 2)



(Paxillin-associated protein with ARF GAP



activity 3) (PAG3) (Pyk2 C-terminus-associated



protein) (PAP)


F5H3T8
Arginine--tR ligase, cytoplasmic
F5H3T8; P54136; P54136-2


P05089
Argise-1 (EC 3.5.3.1) (Liver-type argise) (Type I
P05089; P05089-2; P05089-3



argise)


P08243
Asparagine synthetase [glutamine-hydrolyzing]
P08243; P08243-2; P08243-3



(EC 6.3.5.4) (Cell cycle control protein TS11)



(Glutamine-dependent asparagine synthetase)


O43776
Asparagine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic (EC
O43776



6.1.1.22) (Asparaginyl-tRNA synthetase)



(AsnRS)


H7BZ35
Aspartate--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic
P14868; Q68CR9; H7BZ35


B1AKZ3
Astrocytic phosphoprotein PEA-15
B1AKZ3; B1AKZ5; Q15121



(Phosphoprotein enriched in astrocytes 15,



isoform CRA_b) (cD FLJ38560 fis, clone



HCHON2003642, highly similar to Astrocytic



phosphoprotein PEA-15)


D6R9H7
ATP synthase F(0) complex subunit C1,
D6R9H7; E7EPU7; E7EQ97; I3L0Y5; P05496;



mitochondrial
P48201; Q06055; Q06055-2; Q06055-3


P25705
ATP synthase subunit alpha, mitochondrial
K7EK77; K7ENJ4; P25705-3; K7ERX7; P25705;




P25705-2; K7EJP0


B4DL14
ATP synthase subunit gamma
B4DL14; P36542; P36542-2


H0Y2W2
ATPase family AAA domain-containing protein
H0Y2W2; J3QSF3; Q5T2N8; Q5T9A4; Q5T9A4-



3A
2; Q5T9A4-3; Q9NVI7; Q9NVI7-2; Q9NVI7-3


G3V126
ATPase, H+ transporting, lysosomal 50/57 kDa,
G3V126; Q9UI12; Q9UI12-2



V1 subunit H, isoform CRA_c (V-type proton



ATPase subunit H)


B4E3P0
ATP-citrate synthase (cDNA FLJ55447, highly
B4E3P0; P53396; P53396-2



similar to ATP-citrate synthase (EC 2.3.3.8))


B1APP6
ATP-dependent 6-phosphofructokinase, platelet
B1APP6; Q01813; Q01813-2



type


Q08211
ATP-dependent RNA helicase A (RHA) (EC
Q08211



3.6.4.13) (DEAH box protein 9) (Leukophysin)



(LKP) (Nuclear DNA helicase II) (NDH II)


B1Q2N1
ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX39A (DEAD
B1Q2N1; B4DIJ6; B4DP52; F6S4E6; F6TRA5;



(Asp-Glu-Ala-Asp) box polypeptide 39 transcript
F6UJC5; F6WLT2; F8VQ10; K7EPJ3; K7EQN7;



variant)
O00148; O00148-2; Q13838; Q13838-2;




Q5STU3


B4DLA0
ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX3X (cDNA
B4DLA0; B4E3C4; O00571



FLJ55031, highly similar to ATP-dependent RNA



helicase DDX3X (EC 3.6.1.—))


B5MCE7
Basic leucine zipper and W2 domain-containing
B5MCE7; B5MCH7; E7ETZ4; Q75MG1; Q9Y6E2



protein 2 (Basic leucine zipper and W2 domains



2, isoform CRA_b)


P51572
B-cell receptor-associated protein 31
P51572; P51572-2



(BCR-associated protein 31) (Bap31) (6C6-AG



tumor-associated antigen) (Protein CDM) (p28)


J3KRP0
Beta-Ala-His dipeptidase
J3KRP0; Q96KN2


P32121
Beta-arrestin-2 (Arrestin beta-2)
P32121; P32121-2; P32121-3; P32121-4; P32121-




5; Q68DZ5


A2A2P1
Beta-catenin-like protein 1
A2A2P1; Q8WYA6-4; Q8WYA6


P42025
Beta-centractin (Actin-related protein 1B)
P42025; P61163; R4GMT0



(ARP1B)


P13929
Beta-enolase (EC 4.2.1.11)
P13929; P13929-2; P13929-3



(2-phospho-D-glycerate hydro-lyase) (Enolase 3)



(Muscle-specific enolase) (MSE) (Skeletal



muscle enolase)


B4DKE7
Beta-hexosaminidase subunit alpha#
B4DKE7; E9PGL4; H3BP20; H3BS10; H3BTD4;




H3BU85; P06865


P07686
Beta-hexosaminidase subunit beta (EC 3.2.1.52)
P07686; Q5URX0



(Beta-N-acetylhexosaminidase subunit beta)



(Hexosaminidase subunit B) (Cervical cancer



proto-oncogene 7 protein) (HCC-7)



(N-acetyl-beta-glucosaminidase subunit beta)



[Cleaved into: Beta-hexosaminidase subunit



beta chain B; Beta-hexosaminidase subunit beta



chain A]


P07814
Bifunctional glutamate/proline--tRNA ligase
P07814; V9GYZ6



(Bifunctional aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase) (Cell



proliferation-inducing gene 32 protein)



(Glutamatyl-prolyl-tRNA synthetase) [Includes:



Glutamate--tRNA ligase (EC 6.1.1.17)



(Glutamyl-tRNA synthetase) (GluRS);



Proline--tRNA ligase (EC 6.1.1.15) (Prolyl-tRNA



synthetase)]


H7C3X0
Bifunctional protein NCOAT
O60502-4; H7C3X0; O60502; O60502-2; O60502-3


Q96GW7
Brevican core protein (Brain-enriched
Q5T3I7; Q96GW7; Q96GW7-1



hyaluronan-binding protein) (BEHAB)



(Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 7)


F5H2F4
C-1-tetrahydrofolate synthase, cytoplasmic
F5H2F4; P11586


Q9Y376
Calcium-binding protein 39 (MO25alpha)
Q9Y376



(Protein Mo25)


B7ZBJ4
Calcium-binding protein 39-like
B7ZBJ4; Q5TAW7; Q9H9S4; Q9Y376


E7ERY9
Calcium-transporting ATPase (EC 3.6.3.8)
E7ERY9; P20020; P20020-2; P20020-3; P20020-




4; P20020-5; P20020-6


Q9HB71
Calcyclin-binding protein (CacyBP) (hCacyBP)
Q9HB71; Q9HB71-3



(S100A6-binding protein) (Siah-interacting



protein)


D6RAQ8
Calnexin
P27824-2; D6RAQ8; D6RAU8; D6RB85; D6RDP7;




H0Y9Q7; P27824


P27797
Calreticulin (CRP55) (Calregulin) (Endoplasmic
K7EJB9; K7EL50; P27796



reticulum resident protein 60) (ERp60) (HACBP)



(grp60)


O94985
Calsyntenin-1 (Alcadein-alpha) (Alc-alpha)
O94985-2



(Alzheimer-related cadherin-like protein)



(Non-classical cadherin XB31alpha) [Cleaved



into: Soluble Alc-alpha (SAlc-alpha); CTF1-alpha



(C-terminal fragment 1-alpha)]


O43852
Calumenin (Crocalbin) (IEF SSP 9302)
O43852; O43852-10; O43852-15; O43852-2;




O43852-3; O43852-4; O43852-6; O43852-8


P10644
cAMP-dependent protein kinase type I-alpha
P10644



regulatory subunit (Tissue-specific extinguisher



1) (TSE1) [Cleaved into: cAMP-dependent



protein kinase type I-alpha regulatory subunit,



N-terminally processed]


H7BYW5
cAMP-dependent protein kinase type I-beta
H7BYW5; P10644; P31321



regulatory subunit


H7C4A9
cAMP-dependent protein kinase type II-alpha
H7C4A9; P13861; Q9BUB1



regulatory subunit


K7EID3
cAMP-dependent protein kise type I-alpha
K7EID3; K7EIE5; K7EJ40; K7EK41; K7ENR3;



regulatory subunit
K7EPB2; K7ER48; P10644


B1AK87
Capping protein (Actin filament) muscle Z-line,
B1AK87; B1AK88; P47756; P47756-2



beta, isoform CRA_a (F-actin-capping protein



subunit beta)


A8MTM1
Carbonyl reductase [NADPH] 1
A8MTM1; P16152-2; E9PQ63; P16152


C9JE88
Carboxypeptidase E
C9JE88; D6R930; D6RF88; P16870; P16870-2


H3BSA1
Casein kinase II subunit alpha
H3BSA1; H3BV19; P19784


C9JZR2
Catenin delta-1
C9JZR2; E9PKY0; O60716; O60716-10; O60716-




11; O60716-12; O60716-13; O60716-14;




O60716-15; O60716-16; O60716-17; O60716-




18; O60716-19; O60716-2; O60716-20; O60716-




21; O60716-22; O60716-23; O60716-24;




O60716-25; O60716-26; O60716-27; O60716-




28; O60716-29; O60716-3; O60716-30; O60716-




31; O60716-32; O60716-4; O60716-5;




O60716-6; O60716-7; O60716-8; O60716-9


P43235
Cathepsin K (EC 3.4.22.38) (Cathepsin O)
P43235; Q5QP40



(Cathepsin O2) (Cathepsin X)


Q9UBR2
Cathepsin Z (EC 3.4.18.1) (Cathepsin P)
Q9UBR2



(Cathepsin X)


F5GXJ9
CD166 antigen
F5GXJ9; H7C543; Q13740; Q13740-2; Q13740-4


Q9NZ45
CDGSH iron-sulfur domain-containing protein 1
Q9NZ45



(MitoNEET)


B3KRG5
cDNA FLJ34201 fis, clone FCBBF3019714,
B3KRG5; H3BUY5; P38159; P38159-2; Q96E39



highly similar to HETEROGENEOUS NUCLEAR



RIBONUCLEOPROTEIN G


B7Z514
cDNA FLJ50601, highly similar to Glutathione
B7Z514; P48637



synthetase (EC 6.3.2.3)


B7Z3E2
cDNA FLJ50777, highly similar to
B7Z3E2; O00743; O00743-2; O00743-3



Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 (EC



3.1.3.16) (cDNA, FLJ79426, highly similar to



Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 (EC



3.1.3.16))


B4DXI8
cDNA FLJ51373, highly similar to 26S
B4DXI8; H3BNT7; H3BTM8; P51665



proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit 7


B4DPJ8
cDNA FLJ52344, highly similar to T-complex
B4DPJ8; P40227; P40227-2



protein 1 subunit zeta (cDNA, FLJ79129, highly



similar to T-complex protein 1 subunit zeta)


B4DN60
cDNA FLJ52703, highly similar to
B4DN60; O43776



Asparaginyl-tRNA synthetase, cytoplasmic



(EC6.1.1.22)


B4DTM7
cDNA FLJ53006, highly similar to Vinculin
B4DTM7; P18206; P18206-2; P18206-3


B4DUC5
cDNA FLJ53202, highly similar to Exportin-2
B4DUC5; P55060; P55060-3; P55060-4


B4DT31
cDNA FLJ53425, highly similar to Far upstream
B4DT31; E9PEB5; M0R0I5; Q92945; Q96AE4;



element-binding protein 1
Q96AE4-2; Q96I24; Q96I24-2


B7Z2F4
cDNA FLJ53873, highly similar to T-complex
B7Z2F4; B7Z9L0; P50991; P50991-2



protein 1 subunit delta


B4DX42
cDNA FLJ54064, highly similar to Splicing factor 1
B4DX42; Q15637; Q15637-2; Q15637-3; Q15637-




4; Q15637-6; Q15637-7; Q15637-5


B4DTC3
cDNA FLJ54150, highly similar to
B4DTC3; F5H6R6; H0YA96; Q14103; Q14103-



Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein D0
2; Q14103-3; Q14103-4; H0Y8G5


B4E2J1
cDNA FLJ54240, highly similar to ATPase family
B4E2J1; Q8NBU5



AAA domain-containing protein 1


B4DYV7
cDNA FLJ54806, highly similar to Homo sapiens
B4DYV7; O60502-4; H7C3X0; O60502; O60502-



meningioma expressed antigen 5 (MGEA5),
2; O60502-3



mRNA


B4DG22
cDNA FLJ56618, highly similar to Ribosomal
B4DG22; B7Z3B5; B7ZB17; B7ZL90; E9PGT3;



protein S6 kinase alpha-3 (EC 2.7.11.1)
E9PRI4; F2Z2J1; F5GYC4; P51812; Q15349;




Q15349-2; Q15349-3; Q15418; Q15418-2;




Q15418-3; Q5SVM6; Q9UK32


B1APJ0
cDNA FLJ57459, highly similar to Mitochondrial
B1APJ0; E7EP42; E9PB91; O14925; Q5SRD1;



import inner membrane translocase subunit
S4R2X5



Tim23


B7Z8M7
cDNA FLJ57768, highly similar to Ras-related
B7Z8M7; E7END7; P62820; P62820-2



protein Rab-1A


B4DDM6
cDNA FLJ57899, highly similar to Mitotic
B4DDM6; J3QT28; O43684; O43684-2



checkpoint protein BUB3


B4DIZ2
cDNA FLJ57995, moderately similar to
B4DIZ2; D6RDM7; P61086; P61086-3



Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2-25 kDa (EC



6.3.2.19)


B7Z1Z6
cDNA FLJ58056, highly similar to
D6R938; E9PBG7; E9PF82; Q13557; Q13557-



Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase
10; Q13557-11; Q13557-12; Q13557-3; Q13557-



type II beta chain (EC 2.7.11.17)
4; Q13557-5; Q13557-6; Q13557-8; Q13557-




9; B7Z1Z6; D6RHX9; E7EQE4; E9PBE8;




H7BXS4; Q13554; Q13554-2; Q13554-3; Q13554-




4; Q13554-5; Q13554-6; Q13554-7; Q13554-




8; Q13555; Q13555-10; Q13555-2; Q13555-




3; Q13555-4; Q13555-5; Q13555-6; Q13555-




7; Q13555-8; Q13555-9; Q5SWX3; Q8WU40;




Q9UQM7; Q9UQM7-2


B4DLC0
cDNA FLJ58476, highly similar to
B4DLC0; B4DXP5; F8VRH0; F8VXH9; F8VZX2;



Poly(rC)-binding protein 2
Q15366-7; H3BRU6; Q15366; Q15366-2;




Q15366-3; Q15366-4; Q15366-5; Q15366-6


B7Z5N7
cDNA FLJ58612, highly similar to Sec1 family
B7Z5N7; B7Z738; Q8WVM8; Q8WVM8-2; Q8WVM8-3



domain-containing protein 1


B4DJ96
cDNA FLJ59548, highly similar to Cisplatin
B4DJ96; D6RDI2; J3KPP4; O95232



resistance-associated overexpressed protein


B4DKM5
cDNA FLJ60120, highly similar to
B4DKM5; P45880; P45880-1; P45880-2



Voltage-dependent anion-selective channel



protein 2 (cDNA, FLJ78818, highly similar to



Voltage-dependent anion-selective channel



protein 2)


B4DH61
cDNA FLJ60521, highly similar to Protein
E9PKD5; E9PM69; P17980; R4GNH3; B4DH61;



kinase-like protein C9orf96
E9PLG2; E9PMD8; E9PN50


A8K8G0
cDNA FLJ75113
A8K8G0; P51858; P51858-2; P51858-3


B7Z9J8
cDNA, FLJ78862, highly similar to Isocitrate
B7Z9J8; H0YL72; H0YMU3; P50213; P50213-2



dehydrogenase (cDNA, FLJ78950, highly similar



to Isocitrate dehydrogenase)


Q9BY67
Cell adhesion molecule 1 (Immunoglobulin
Q9BY67; Q9BY67-2; Q9BY67-3; Q9BY67-4;



superfamily member 4) (IgSF4) (Nectin-like
Q9BY67-5; X5DQS5



protein 2) (NECL-2) (Spermatogenic



immunoglobulin superfamily) (SgIgSF) (Synaptic



cell adhesion molecule) (SynCAM) (Tumor



suppressor in lung cancer 1) (TSLC-1)


Q8NFZ8
Cell adhesion molecule 4 (Immunoglobulin
Q8NFZ8



superfamily member 4C) (IgSF4C) (Nectin-like



protein 4) (NECL-4) (TSLC1-like protein 2)


E7ETU3
Cell division control protein 42 homolog
E7ETU3; P60953


E7ETU3
Cell division control protein 42 homolog*
E7ETU3; P60953; P60953-1; Q5JYX0


E9PFZ2
Ceruloplasmin
E9PFZ2; H7C5R1; P00450


Q7LBR1
Charged multivesicular body protein 1b
Q7LBR1



(CHMP1.5) (Chromatin-modifying protein 1b)



(CHMP1b) (Vacuolar protein sorting-associated



protein 46-2) (Vps46-2) (hVps46-2)


Q9H444
Charged multivesicular body protein 4b
Q9H444



(Chromatin-modifying protein 4b) (CHMP4b)



(SNF7 homolog associated with Alix 1) (SNF7-2)



(h5nf7-2) (Vacuolar protein sorting-associated



protein 32-2) (Vps32-2) (hVps32-2)


O00299
Chloride intracellular channel protein 1 (Chloride
O00299



channel ABP) (Nuclear chloride ion channel 27)



(NCC27) (Regulatory nuclear chloride ion



channel protein) (hRNCC)


C9J050
Choline-phosphate cytidylyltransferase A
C9J050; C9JEJ2; H7BZN1; H7C1T3; P49585;




C9J2E1


O95196
Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 5 (Acidic
O95196; O95196-2



leucine-rich EGF-like domain-containing brain



protein) (Neuroglycan C)


B8ZZ43
Chromobox homolog 3 (HP1 gamma homolog,
B8ZZ43; C9JMM0; Q13185; S4R2Y4




Drosophila), isoform CRA_b (Chromobox protein




homolog 3)


Q13185
Chromobox protein homolog 3 (HECH)
Q13185; S4R2Y4



(Heterochromatin protein 1 homolog gamma)



(HP1 gamma) (Modifier 2 protein)


F5GWX5
Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 4
F5GWX5; Q12873; Q12873-2; Q12873-3; Q14839;




Q14839-2


G5E968
Chromogranin-A (CgA) (Pituitary secretory
G5E968; P10645



protein I) (SP-I) [Cleaved into: Vasostatin-1



(Vasostatin I); Vasostatin-2 (Vasostatin II);



EA-92; ES-43; Pancreastatin; SS-18; WA-8;



WE-14; LF-19; AL-11; GV-19; GR-44; ER-37]


B4DJV2
Citrate synthase
B4DJV2; F8VPA1; F8VTT8; F8VX07; F8VX68;




F8W1S4; F8W4S1; F8W642; H0YH82; O75390;




F8VPF9; F8VRP1; F8VZK9


Q00610
Clathrin heavy chain 1 (Clathrin heavy chain on
J3KRF5; J3KS13; K7EJJ5; Q00610; Q00610-1



chromosome 17) (CLH-17)


Q14677
Clathrin interactor 1 (Clathrin-interacting protein
Q14677; Q14677-2; Q14677-3



localized in the trans-Golgi region) (Clint)



(Enthoprotin) (Epsin-4) (Epsin-related protein)



(EpsinR)


F8WF69
Clathrin light chain A
F8WF69; P09496; P09496-2; P09496-3; P09496-4


P09497
Clathrin light chain B (Lcb)
P09497; P09497-2


I3L2B0
Clustered mitochondria protein homolog
I3L2B0; K7EIG1; O75153


E7ERK6
Clusterin beta chain
E7ERK6; H0YC35; H0YLK8; P10909; P10909-




2; P10909-3; P10909-4; P10909-5


Q14019
Coactosin-like protein
Q14019


B4DZI8
Coatomer protein complex, subunit beta 2 (Beta
B4DZI8; P35606



prime), isoform CRA_b (Coatomer subunit beta′)



(cD FLJ56271, highly similar to Coatomer



subunit beta)


P53621
Coatomer subunit alpha (Alpha-coat protein)
P53621; P53621-2



(Alpha-COP) (HEP-COP) (HEPCOP) [Cleaved



into: Xenin (Xenopsin-related peptide); Proxenin]


B4DZI8
Coatomer subunit beta#
B4DZI8; P35606


F8VVA7
Coatomer subunit zeta-1
P61923-3; F8VVA7; P61923-4; F8VYK5; F8W651;




P61923; P61923-2


E9PK25
Cofilin-1
E9PK25; G3V1A4; P23528; E9PP50


A6NNP5
Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 169
A6NNP5; A6NNP5-3; A6NNP5-4; A6NNP5-5;




A6NNP5-6; E9PBZ7; H7C1A8; Q9GZT8; Q9GZT8-




2; Q9NX45-3


C9JRZ6
Coiled-coil-helix-coiled-coil-helix
C9JRZ6; F8WAR4; Q9NX63



domain-containing protein 3, mitochondrial


E9PLT0
Cold shock domain-containing protein E1
E9PLT0; O75534-4; O75534; O75534-2; O75534-3


P12109
Collagen alpha-1(VI) chain
P12109


Q5KU26
Collectin-12 (Collectin placenta protein 1)
Q5KU26



(CL-P1) (hCL-P1) (Nurse cell scavenger receptor



2) (Scavenger receptor class A member 4)



(Scavenger receptor with C-type lectin)


P01024
Complement C3 (C3 and PZP-like
M0QXZ3; P01023



alpha-2-macroglobulin domain-containing



protein 1) [Cleaved into: Complement C3 beta



chain; C3-beta-c (C3bc); Complement C3 alpha



chain; C3a anaphylatoxin; Acylation stimulating



protein (ASP) (C3adesArg); Complement C3b



alpha′ chain; Complement C3c alpha′ chain



fragment 1; Complement C3dg fragment;



Complement C3g fragment; Complement C3d



fragment; Complement C3f fragment;



Complement C3c alpha′ chain fragment 2]


F5GXS0
Complement C4-B
F5GXS0; P0C0L4; P0C0L4-2; P0C0L5


F8WDX4
Complement factor H
P08603; F8WDX4; P08603-2


Q12860
Contactin-1 (Glycoprotein gp135) (Neural cell
Q12860; Q12860-2



surface protein F3)


C9JFE4
COP9 signalosome complex subunit 1 (G protein
C9JFE4; J3KSA5; Q13098; Q13098-5; Q13098-



pathway suppressor 1, isoform CRA_b)
6; Q13098-7


C9JLV5
COP9 signalosome complex subunit 3
H7C3P9; J3KTQ1; J3QKR0; Q9UNS2; Q9UNS2-




2; C9JLV5


D6RAX7
COP9 signalosome complex subunit 4
D6RAX7; D6RFN0; Q9BT78; Q9BT78-2


E5RHH5
COP9 signalosome complex subunit 5 (SGN5)
E5RHH5; Q92905



(Signalosome subunit 5) (EC 3.4.—.—) (Jun



activation domain-binding protein 1)


O75131
Copine-3 (Copine III)
O75131


O75367
Core histone macro-H2A.1 (Histone
O75367; O75367-2; O75367-3



macroH2A1) (mH2A1) (Histone H2A.y) (H2A/y)



(Medulloblastoma antigen MU-MB-50.205)


H3BRY3
Coronin
H3BRY3; H3BTU6; P31146; H3BRJ1


Q9BR76
Coronin-1B (Coronin-2)
Q9BR76


D6RAX2
C-terminal-binding protein 1
E7EPF8; E7ESU7; P56545; P56545-2; Q13363;




Q13363-2; Q5SQP8; D6RAX2


P17812
CTP synthase 1 (EC 6.3.4.2) (CTP synthetase 1)
P17812-2; P17812



(UTP--ammonia ligase 1)


Q13616
Cullin-1 (CUL-1)
Q13616


Q13618
Cullin-3 (CUL-3)
Q13618; Q13618-2; Q13618-3


A6NE76
Cullin-4B
A6NE76; K4DI93; Q13620; Q13620-1; Q13620-3


Q86VP6
Cullin-associated NEDD8-dissociated protein 1
Q86VP6; Q86VP6-2



(Cullin-associated and neddylation-dissociated



protein 1) (TBP-interacting protein of 120 kDa A)



(TBP-interacting protein 120A) (p120 CAND1)


P01034
Cystatin-C (Cystatin-3) (Gamma-trace)
P01034



(Neuroendocrine basic polypeptide)



(Post-gamma-globulin)


F5GWD2
Cytochrome b-245 heavy chain
F5GWD2; F5GWU5; P04839; Q9Y5S8; Q9Y5S8-3


P31930
Cytochrome b-c1 complex subunit 1,
P31930



mitochondrial (Complex III subunit 1) (Core



protein I) (Ubiquinol-cytochrome-c reductase



complex core protein 1)


C9JFR7
Cytochrome c
C9JFR7; P99999


E7ENE7
Cytochrome P450 2D6
E7ENE7; P10635; E9PDB2; G3XAL0; P40926


Q14204
Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1
Q14204



(Cytoplasmic dynein heavy chain 1) (Dynein



heavy chain, cytosolic)


E7EQL5
Cytoplasmic dynein 1 intermediate chain 2
Q13409-7; E7EQL5; F8W8S0; Q13409; Q13409-




2; Q13409-3; Q13409-5; Q13409-6; E7EV09


H0YCF6
Cytoskeleton-associated protein 5
H0YEK7; Q14008; Q14008-2; Q14008-3; H0YCF6


P28838
Cytosol aminopeptidase (EC 3.4.11.1) (Leucine
P28838; P28838-2; H0Y9Q0



aminopeptidase 3) (LAP-3) (Leucyl



aminopeptidase) (Peptidase S) (Proline



aminopeptidase) (EC 3.4.11.5) (Prolyl



aminopeptidase)


B4DUX0
Cytosolic acyl coenzyme A thioester hydrolase
B4DUX0; O00154; O00154-2; O00154-3; O00154-



(cDNA FLJ60167, highly similar to Cytosolic acyl
4; O00154-5; O00154-6; O00154-7; K7EKP8



coenzyme A thioester hydrolase(EC 3.1.2.2))


B7Z382
Cytosolic purine 5′-nucleotidase
B7Z382; P49902; Q5JUV6


P49902
Cytosolic purine 5′-nucleotidase (EC 3.1.3.5)
P49902-2; P49902; Q5JUV3; Q5JUV4



(Cytosolic 5′-nucleotidase II)


C9J8U1
Cytospin-A
F8WAN1; P35241; P35241-4; P35241-5; Q69YQ0;




Q69YQ0-2; C9J8U1


O43175
D-3-phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase
O43175



(3-PGDH) (EC 1.1.1.95)


F6RFD5
Destrin
F6RFD5; P60981; P60981-2


Q9Y295
Developmentally-regulated GTP-binding protein
Q9Y295



1 (DRG-1) (Neural precursor cell expressed



developmentally down-regulated protein 3)



(NEDD-3)


B4DDD2
Dihydrofolate reductase#
B4DDD2; P00374


F2Z2E3
Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase, mitochondrial
P09622-3; F2Z2E3; F8WDM5; P09622


B3KW71
Dihydropteridine reductase
B3KW71; P09417


E9PD68
Dihydropyrimidinase-related protein 1
E9PD68; F5GWI3; H0YBT4; Q14194; Q14194-




2; Q14195; Q14195-2; Q16555; Q16555-2


E5RFU4
Dihydropyrimidinase-related protein 2
E5RFU4; E9PD68; Q14194; Q14194-2; Q16555;




Q16555-2


Q16555
Dihydropyrimidinase-related protein 2 (DRP-2)
Q16555; Q16555-2



(Collapsin response mediator protein 2)



(CRMP-2) (N2A3) (Unc-33-like phosphoprotein



2) (ULIP-2)


E7EWB4
Dihydropyrimidise-related protein 5
E7EWB4; Q9BPU6


G3V180
Dipeptidyl peptidase 3 (HCG2016942, isoform
G3V180; G3V1D3; Q9NY33; Q9NY33-4



CRA_d)


B4DTU4
DNA ligase (EC 6.5.1.1)
B4DTU4; F5GZ28; M0R0Q7; P18858; Q2TB12


Q9NRF9
DNA polymerase epsilon subunit 3 (EC 2.7.7.7)
Q9NRF9



(Arsenic-transactivated protein) (AsTP)



(Chromatin accessibility complex 17 kDa protein)



(CHRAC-17) (HuCHRAC17) (DNA polymerase II



subunit 3) (DNA polymerase epsilon subunit p17)


H0Y8E6
DNA replication licensing factor MCM2
H0Y8E6; P49736


P11387
DNA topoisomerase 1 (EC 5.99.1.2) (DNA
P11387



topoisomerase I)


E9PCY5
DNA topoisomerase 2 (EC 5.99.1.3)
E9PCY5; P11388; P11388-2; P11388-3; P11388-




4; Q02880; Q02880-2


P31689
DnaJ homolog subfamily A member 1 (DnaJ
P31689; P31689-2



protein homolog 2) (HSDJ) (Heat shock 40 kDa



protein 4) (Heat shock protein J2) (HSJ-2)



(Human DnaJ protein 2) (hDj-2)


O60884
DnaJ homolog subfamily A member 2 (Cell cycle
O60884



progression restoration gene 3 protein) (Dnj3)



(Dj3) (HIRA-interacting protein 4) (Renal



carcinoma antigen NY-REN-14)


Q9H3Z4
DnaJ homolog subfamily C member 5 (Cysteine
Q9H3Z4; Q9H3Z4-2



string protein) (CSP)


H0Y368
Dolichol-phosphate mannosyltransferase subunit 1
H0Y368; O60762; Q5QPK2


Q9P2X0
Dolichol-phosphate mannosyltransferase subunit
Q9P2X0; Q9P2X0-2



3 (Dolichol-phosphate mannose synthase



subunit 3) (DPM synthase subunit 3)



(Dolichyl-phosphate



beta-D-mannosyltransferase subunit 3)



(Mannose-P-dolichol synthase subunit 3) (MPD



synthase subunit 3) (Prostin-1)


E7EWT1
Dolichyl-diphosphooligosaccharide--protein
E7EWT1; P39656; U3KQ84



glycosyltransferase 48 kDa subunit


F8WF32
Dolichyl-diphosphooligosaccharide--protein
P04843; F8WF32; B7Z4L4



glycosyltransferase subunit 1


E9PI32
Dolichyl-diphosphooligosaccharide--protein
E9PI32; E9PN73; P46977



glycosyltransferase subunit STT3A



(Oligosaccharyl transferase subunit STT3A)



(STT3-A) (EC 2.4.99.18) (B5) (Integral



membrane protein 1) (Transmembrane protein



TMC)


G5E9C7
Dual-specificity mitogen-activated protein kinase
P36507; Q02750; Q02750-2; G5E9C7



kinase 2 (Mitogen-activated protein kinase



kinase 2, isoform CRA_b)


Q9UJW0
Dynactin subunit 4 (Dyn4) (Dynactin subunit
E5RGG1; H9KVE0; Q9UJW0; Q9UJW0-2; Q9UJW0-2



p62)


G8JLD5
Dynamin-1-like protein
O00429-7; G8JLD5; O00429-8; O00429; O00429-




2; O00429-3; O00429-4; O00429-5; O00429-6


F8VRV5
Dynein light chain 1, cytoplasmic
F8VRV5; F8VXL2; P63167


E5RI87
E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RNF130
E5RI87; Q86XS8-2; Q86XS8; F5H1R4; F5H4A3;




K7EM85; K7ES98; Q92619; Q92619-2


F5H012
E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase TRIM21
F5H012; P19474; P19474-2


Q96C19
EF-hand domain-containing protein D2
Q96C19



(Swiprosin-1)


B4DVB8
ELAV-like protein 1 (cD FLJ60076, highly similar
B4DVB8; M0QZR9; M0R055; Q15717



to ELAV-like protein 1)


H0YK49
Electron transfer flavoprotein subunit alpha,
H0YK49; H0YNX6; P13804; P13804-2



mitochondrial


P38117
Electron transfer flavoprotein subunit beta
M0QY67; P38117; P38117-1



(Beta-ETF)


P68104
Elongation factor 1-alpha 1 (EF-1-alpha-1)
P68104; Q05639; Q5VTE0



(Elongation factor Tu) (EF-Tu) (Eukaryotic



elongation factor 1 A-1) (eEF1A-1) (Leukocyte



receptor cluster member 7)


C9JZW3
Elongation factor 1-beta
C9JZW3; P24534


B4DTG2
Elongation factor 1-gamma#
B4DTG2; P26641


P13639
Elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
P13639


C9IZ01
Elongation factor G, mitochondrial
C9IZ01; Q96RP9; Q96RP9-2


P49411
Elongation factor Tu, mitochondrial (EF-Tu)
P49411



(P43)


Q9NZ08
Endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase 1 (EC
Q9NZ08; Q9NZ08-2



3.4.11.—) (ARTS-1) (Adipocyte-derived leucine



aminopeptidase) (A-LAP) (Aminopeptidase



PILS) (Puromycin-insensitive leucyl-specific



aminopeptidase) (PILS-AP) (Type 1 tumor



necrosis factor receptor shedding



aminopeptidase regulator)


Q9BS26
Endoplasmic reticulum resident protein 44 (ER
Q9BS26



protein 44) (ERp44) (Thioredoxin



domain-containing protein 4)


Q969X5
Endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate
Q969X5; Q969X5-2



compartment protein 1 (ER-Golgi intermediate



compartment 32 kDa protein) (ERGIC-32)


P14625
Endoplasmin (94 kDa glucose-regulated protein)
P14625



(GRP-94) (Heat shock protein 90 kDa beta



member 1) (Tumor rejection antigen 1) (gp96



homolog)


O60869
Endothelial differentiation-related factor 1
O60869; O60869-2; O60869-3



(EDF-1) (Multiprotein-bridging factor 1) (MBF1)


H7C0S6
Engulfment and cell motility protein 1
H7C0S6; Q92556; Q92556-3


G3V279
Enhancer of rudimentary homolog
P84090; G3V279


P30084
Enoyl-CoA hydratase, mitochondrial (EC
P30084



4.2.1.17) (Enoyl-CoA hydratase 1) (Short-chain



enoyl-CoA hydratase) (SCEH)


B7Z6Q8
Ephrin type-A receptor 4#
B7Z6Q8; E9PG71; P54764


M0R2A0
ER membrane protein complex subunit 10
M0R2A0; Q5UCC4; Q5UCC4-2


D6R9B1
ETS-related transcription factor Elf-2
D6R9B1


P60842
Eukaryotic initiation factor 4A-I (eIF-4A-I)
J3KSZ0; J3KT12; J3KTB5; J3KTN0; J3QS69;



(eIF4A-I) (EC 3.6.4.13) (ATP-dependent RNA
P60842; P60842-1



helicase eIF4A-1)


E7EQG2
Eukaryotic initiation factor 4A-II
E7EQG2; J3KSZ0; J3KT12; J3KTN0; J3QL43;




J3QS69; P38919; P60842; P60842-2; Q14240;




Q14240-2; Q9NZE6; J3QL52


H3BR35
Eukaryotic peptide chain release factor
H3BR35; P15170; P15170-2; P15170-3; Q8IYD1



GTP-binding subunit ERF3A


B7Z7P8
Eukaryotic peptide chain release factor subunit 1
B7Z7P8; I3L492; P62495; Q96CG1



(cDNA FLJ56175, highly similar to Eukaryotic



peptide chain release factor subunit1)


P05198
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit 1
P05198



(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit



alpha) (eIF-2-alpha) (eIF-2A) (eIF-2alpha)


P20042
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit 2
P20042



(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit



beta) (eIF-2-beta)


P41091
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit 3
P41091; Q2VIR3



(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit



gamma X) (eIF-2-gamma X) (eIF-2gX)


F5H335
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit A
F5H335; Q14152



(eIF3a) (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3



subunit 10) (eIF-3-theta)


P55884
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit B
P55884; P55884-2



(eIF3b) (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3



subunit 9) (Prt1 homolog) (hPrt1) (eIF-3-eta)



(eIF3 p110) (eIF3 p116)


B0QYA4
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit D
B0QYA4; B0QYA5; O15371-2; O15371; O15371-3


E5RGA2
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit E
E5RGA2; E5RIT4; H0YBR5; P60228



(eIF3e) (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3



subunit 6) (eIF-3 p48)


K7ENA8
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit G
K7ENA8; K7EP16; O75821


Q13347
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit I
Q13347



(eIF3i) (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3



subunit 2) (TGF-beta receptor-interacting protein



1) (TRIP-1) (eIF-3-beta) (eIF3 p36)


O75822
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit J
O75822-2; O75822-3; O75822



(eIF3j) (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3



subunit 1) (eIF-3-alpha) (eIF3 p35)


B0QY89
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit L
B0QY89; B0QY90; Q9Y262; Q9Y262-2



(eIF3l) (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3



subunit 6-interacting protein) (Eukaryotic



translation initiation factor 3 subunit E-interacting



protein)


B4E2Q4
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit M
B4E2Q4; Q7L2H7; H0YCQ8



(cDNA FLJ54904, highly similar to Homo sapiens



dendritic cell protein (hfl-B5), mRNA)


E7EUU4
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma 1
E7EUU4; E7EX73; E9PGM1; Q04637; Q04637-




3; Q04637-4; Q04637-5; Q04637-6; Q04637-




7; Q04637-8; Q04637-9


I3L397
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A-1
I3L504; P63241; P63241-2; I3L397


C9J4W5
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A-2
C9J4W5; C9J7B5; F8WCJ1; I3L504; P63241;




P63241-2; Q9GZV4; I3L397


O43909
Exostosin-like 3 (EC 2.4.1.223) (EXT-related
O43909; O95502



protein 1) (Glucuronyl-galactosyl-proteoglycan



4-alpha-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase)



(Hereditary multiple exostoses gene isolog)



(Multiple exostosis-like protein 3) (Putative tumor



suppressor protein EXTL3)


E7EQR4
Ezrin
E7EQR4; P15311; P26038; P35241; P35241-




4; P35241-5


Q9Y5B9
FACT complex subunit SPT16
Q9Y5B9



(Chromatin-specific transcription elongation



factor 140 kDa subunit) (FACT 140 kDa subunit)



(FACTp140) (Facilitates chromatin transcription



complex subunit SPT16) (hSPT16)


C9JUG7
F-actin-capping protein subunit alpha-2 (CapZ
C9JUG7; F8W9N7; P47755; P47755-2



alpha-2)


B4DT31
Far upstream element-binding protein 1 (cD
Q96AE4; B4DT31; E9PEB5; M0QYG1; M0R0C6;



FLJ53425, highly similar to Far upstream
M0R251; M0R263; M0R3J3; Q92945; Q96AE4-2



element-binding protein 1)


M0QXW7
Far upstream element-binding protein 2
M0QXW7; M0QYH3; M0R015; Q92945



(FUSE-binding protein 2) (KH type-splicing



regulatory protein) (KSRP) (p75)


P15090
Fatty acid-binding protein, adipocyte (Adipocyte
P15090



lipid-binding protein) (ALBP) (Adipocyte-type



fatty acid-binding protein) (A-FABP) (AFABP)



(Fatty acid-binding protein 4)


E9PNW8
Fatty acyl-CoA reductase 1
E9PNW8; Q8WVX9


O60907
F-box-like/WD repeat-containing protein TBL1X
O60907; O60907-2; Q9BQ87; Q9BZK7



(SMAP55) (Transducin beta-like protein 1X)



(Transducin-beta-like protein 1, X-linked)


H0YFT5
Fermitin family homolog 3
H0YFT5; Q86UX7; Q86UX7-2


B1AHL2
Fibulin-1
B1AHL2; P23142-3; F8W7M9; P23142; P23142-




2; P23142-4


P21333
Filamin-A (FLN-A) (Actin-binding protein 280)
F8WE98; O75369; O75369-2; O75369-3; O75369-



(ABP-280) (Alpha-filamin) (Endothelial
4; O75369-5; O75369-6; O75369-8; O75369-



actin-binding protein) (Filamin-1) (Non-muscle
9; P21333; P21333-2; Q14315; Q14315-



filamin)
2; Q5HY53


A8MQB8
Fragile X mental retardation protein 1
A8MQB8; G3V0J0; Q06787-9; G8JLE9; Q06787;




Q06787-2; Q06787-3; Q06787-4; Q06787-




5; Q06787-6; Q06787-7; Q06787-8; Q8IXW7


H3BQN4
Fructose-bisphosphate aldolase (EC 4.1.2.13)
H3BQN4; H3BR68; J3KPS3; P04075; P04075-2


A8MVZ9
Fructose-bisphosphate aldolase C
A8MVZ9; C9J8F3; H3BMQ8; H3BPS8; H3BQN4;




H3BR04; H3BU78; H3BUH7; J3KPS3; J3KSV6;




J3QKP5; K7EKH5; P04075; P04075-2;




P09972


P09382
Galectin-1 (Gal-1) (14 kDa laminin-binding
P09382



protein) (HLBP14) (14 kDa lectin)



(Beta-galactoside-binding lectin L-14-I)



(Galaptin) (HBL) (HPL) (Lactose-binding lectin 1)



(Lectin galactoside-binding soluble 1) (Putative



MAPK-activating protein PM12) (S-Lac lectin 1)


B7Z2X9
Gamma-enolase (cD FLJ50150, highly similar to
B7Z2X9; F5H0C8; F5H1C3; P09104



Gamma-enolase (EC 4.2.1.11))


E9PEV0
Gamma-secretase C-termil fragment 59
E9PEV0; E9PG40; P05067; P05067-10; P05067-




11; P05067-4; P05067-6; P05067-8


O60547
GDP-mannose 4,6 dehydratase (EC 4.2.1.47)
O60547; O60547-2



(GDP-D-mannose dehydratase) (GMD)


Q8TEQ6
Gem-associated protein 5 (Gemin5)
Q8TEQ6


P13984
General transcription factor IIF subunit 2 (EC
P13984



3.6.4.12) (ATP-dependent helicase GTF2F2)



(General transcription factor IIF 30 kDa subunit)



(Transcription initiation factor IIF subunit beta)



(TFIIF-beta) (Transcription initiation factor



RAP30)


G3V4P8
Glia maturation factor beta
G3V4P8; M0QYG8; M0QYJ8; M0R0C1; M0R1D2;




O60234; P60983


E7EM57
Glucose-6-phosphate 1-dehydrogenase (EC
E7EM57; E9PD92; P11413; P11413-2; P11413-



1.1.1.49)
3; E7EUI8


K7EQ48
Glucose-6-phosphate isomerase (EC 5.3.1.9)
K7EQ48; P06744; P06744-2


K7ELL7
Glucosidase 2 subunit beta
K7ELL7; P14314; P14314-2


B3KV55
Glutamate dehydrogenase 1, mitochondrial#
B3KV55; B4DGN5; P00367; P49448


P00367
Glutamate dehydrogenase 1, mitochondrial
P00367; P49448



(GDH 1) (EC 1.4.1.3)


O94925
Glutaminase kidney isoform, mitochondrial
O94925; O94925-3



(GLS) (EC 3.5.1.2) (K-glutaminase) (L-glutamine



amidohydrolase)


P47897
Glutamine--tRNA ligase (EC 6.1.1.18)
P47897-2; P47897



(Glutaminyl-tRNA synthetase) (GlnRS)


O76003
Glutaredoxin-3 (PKC-interacting cousin of
O76003



thioredoxin) (PICOT) (PKC-theta-interacting



protein) (PKCq-interacting protein)



(Thioredoxin-like protein 2)


K7EJ20
Glutathione peroxidase
K7EJ20; K7EKX7; K7ENB4; K7ERP4; P36969;




P36969-2; R4GNE4


E9PHN6
Glutathione S-transferase Mu 2
E9PHN6; E9PHN7; E9PLF1; F6XZQ7; P21266;




P28161; P28161-2; P46439; Q5T8Q9; Q5T8R1


P78417
Glutathione S-transferase omega-1 (GSTO-1)
P78417; P78417-2; P78417-3; Q5TA01; Q5TA02



(EC 2.5.1.18) (Glutathione S-transferase omega



1-1) (GSTO 1-1) (Glutathione-dependent



dehydroascorbate reductase) (EC 1.8.5.1)



(Monomethylarsonic acid reductase) (MMA(V)



reductase) (EC 1.20.4.2)



(S-(Phenacyl)glutathione reductase) (SPG-R)


E7EUT5
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
E7EUT5; P04406; P04406-2



(GAPDH) (EC 1.2.1.12) (Peptidyl-cysteine



S-nitrosylase GAPDH) (EC 2.6.99.—)


F5GYK7
Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase,
P43304; P43304-2; F5GYK7



mitochondrial


P23434
Glycine cleavage system H protein,
P23434



mitochondrial (Lipoic acid-containing protein)


P41250
Glycine--tRNA ligase (EC 6.1.1.14) (Diedenosine
H7C443; P41249



tetraphosphate synthetase) (AP-4-A synthetase)



(Glycyl-tRNA synthetase) (GlyRS)


F2Z349
Glycodelin
Q15431; P14618; F2Z349; H0Y4U4; H0Y6A4;




H3BQ34; H3BTN5; P09466; P09466-2; P14618-




2; P14618-3; Q504U3; Q5T6T6; Q5VXJ5


B7Z806
Glycogen [starch] synthase, muscle (cD
B7Z806; F5H1N8; P13807; P13807-2



FLJ53681, highly similar to Glycogen (starch)



synthase, muscle (EC 2.4.1.11))


F5H0U5
Glycolipid transfer protein
F5H0U5; Q9NZD2


B7Z403
Glyoxalase domain-containing protein 4 (cDNA
B7Z403; I3L3Q4; Q9HC38; Q9HC38-2; Q9HC38-3



FLJ55095)


H3BM42
Golgi apparatus protein 1 (Golgi apparatus
H3BM42; Q92896; Q92896-2; Q92896-3



protein 1, isoform CRA_c)


Q96CN9
GRIP and coiled-coil domain-containing protein 1
Q96CN9



(Golgi coiled-coil protein 1)


B4DJW4
Group XV phospholipase A2 (cDNA FLJ58003,
B4DJW4; H3BM47; H3BMU8; H3BPT3; Q8NCC3



highly similar to 1-O-acylceramide synthase (EC



2.3.1.—))


J3K138
Growth factor receptor-bound protein 2
P62993; J3KT38


P62993
Growth factor receptor-bound protein 2 (Adapter
P62993; P62993-2



protein GRB2) (Protein Ash) (SH2/SH3 adapter



GRB2)


H0YDZ7
Guanine deaminase
H0YDZ7; J3QSY3; Q5SZC3; Q5SZC6; Q9Y2T3;




Q9Y2T3-2; Q9Y2T3-3


H0YDG2
Guanine nucleotide exchange factor VAV3
H0YDG2; Q9UKW4; Q9UKW4-4


B1AKQ8
Guanine nucleotide-binding protein
F6UT28; P62873; B1AKQ8; P62873-2



G(I)/G(S)/G(T) subunit beta-1


C9JIS1
Guanine nucleotide-binding protein
C9JIS1; C9JXA5; C9JZN1; P62879



G(I)/G(S)/G(T) subunit beta-2


D6R909
Guanine nucleotide-binding protein subunit
D6R909; D6R9L0; D6RAC2; D6RAU2; D6RBD0;



beta-2-like 1
D6REE5; D6RFX4; D6RGK8; D6RHH4; E9PD14;




P63244; D6R9Z1; D6RFZ9


Q9NY12
H/ACA ribonucleoprotein complex subunit 1
Q9NY12; Q9NY12-2



(Nucleolar protein family A member 1) (snoRNP



protein GAR1)


A8MV53
HCG2033702, isoform CRA_a (Suppressor of
A8MV53; C9J3W3; Q9NQ55; Q9NQ55-2; Q9NQ55-3



SWI4 1 homolog)


H3BQZ7
HCG2044799 (Protein HNRNPUL2-BSCL2)
H3BQZ7; Q1KMD3


P34931
Heat shock 70 kDa protein 1-like (Heat shock 70 kDa
P34931



protein 1L) (Heat shock 70 kDa protein



1-Hom) (HSP70-Hom)


P34932
Heat shock 70 kDa protein 4 (HSP70RY) (Heat
P34932



shock 70-related protein APG-2)


B4DY72
Heat shock protein 105 kDa (cD FLJ52360,
B4DY72; B4DYH1; Q92598; Q92598-2; Q92598-3



highly similar to Heat-shock protein 105 kDa)


I3L0K7
Heat shock protein 75 kDa, mitochondrial (TNF
P07900; P07900-2; P08238; Q86U12; Q12931-



receptor-associated protein 1, isoform CRA_b)
2; I3L0K7; I3L239; Q12931; F5H897


P07900
Heat shock protein HSP 90-alpha (Heat shock
G3V2J8; P07900; P07900-2; P08238; Q58FF6;



86 kDa) (HSP 86) (HSP86)
Q58FF7; Q58FF8; Q5T9W8;; Q86U13



(Lipopolysaccharide-associated protein 2)



(LAP-2) (LPS-associated protein 2) (Rel



carcinoma antigen NY-REN-38)


E7EVW7
Hematopoietic lineage cell-specific protein
E7EVW7; P14317



(Hematopoietic cell-specific LYN substrate 1)



(LckBP1) (p75)


F5GWX2
Heme-binding protein 1
F5GWX2; Q9NRV9


P69905
Hemoglobin subunit alpha (Alpha-globin)
P69905



(Hemoglobin alpha chain)


E9PBW4
Hemoglobin subunit gamma-2
E9PBW4; P02100; P69891; P69892


A8K8G0
Hepatoma-derived growth factor (cD FLJ75113)
A8K8G0; P51858; P51858-2; P51858-3


P51858
Hepatoma-derived growth factor (HDGF) (High
P51858



mobility group protein 1-like 2) (HMG-1L2)


D6R9P3
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A/B
D6R9P3; D6RBZ0; D6RD18; Q99729-2; Q99729-




3; Q99729; Q99729-4


Q13151
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A0
Q13151



(hnRNP A0)


P51991
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A3
P51991; P51991-2



(hnRNP A3)


P52597
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein F
P52597



(hnRNP F) (Nucleolin-like protein mcs94-1)



[Cleaved into: Heterogeneous nuclear



ribonucleoprotein F, N-termilly processed]


D6R9T0
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein H
D6RAM1; D6RBM0; D6RDU3; D6RFM3; D6RIH9;




D6RIT2; D6RIU0; D6RJ04; E5RGH4; E5RGV0;




E7EQJ0; E9PCY7; G8JLB6; H0YAQ2;




P31943; P55795; D6R9T0


P61978
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein K
P61978; P61978-2; P61978-3; Q5T6W5; S4R359



(hnRNP K) (Transformation up-regulated nuclear



protein) (TUNP)


M0QYQ7
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein M
M0QZM1; P52272; P52272-2; M0QYQ7; M0R2T0;




M0R019; M0R0N3


F6UXX1
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein Q
F6UXX1; O60506; O60506-2; O60506-3; O60506-4


O60506
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein Q
O60506; O60506-2; O60506-3; O60506-4; O60506-5



(hnRNP Q) (Glycine- and tyrosine-rich



RNA-binding protein) (GRY-RBP)



(NS1-associated protein 1)



(Synaptotagmin-binding, cytoplasmic



RNA-interacting protein)


B4DT28
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein R
B4DT28; O43390; O43390-2; O43390-3; O43390-4



(Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein R,



isoform CRA_a) (cDNA FLJ54544, highly similar



to Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein R)


B4DSU6
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins
B4DSU6; B4DY08; G3V251; G3V2Q1; G3V3K6;



C1/C2 (cDNA FLJ52975, highly similar to
G3V4C1; G3V4W0; G3V555; G3V575; G3V576;



Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins C)
G3V5X6; O60812; P07910; P07910-2;




P07910-4


E7ENR4
Hexokinase-1
E7ENR4; P19367; P19367-2; P19367-3; P19367-4


E9PB90
Hexokinase-2 (EC 2.7.1.1) (Hexokinase type II)
E9PB90; P52789



(HK II) (Muscle form hexokinase)


P09429
High mobility group protein B1 (High mobility
P09429; Q5T7C4; Q5T7C6



group protein 1) (HMG-1)


E7EQU1
High mobility group protein B3
E7EQU1; E7ES08; E9PES6; O15347


F5H2A4
High mobility group protein HMGI-C
F5H2A4; F5H2U8; P52926


F8VNX0
Histidine ammonia-lyase
P42357; F8VNX0; F8W0V1; P42357-2; P42357-3


D6RC06
Histidine triad nucleotide-binding protein 1
D6RC06; D6RD60; D6RE99; D6REP8; P49773


B3KWE1
Histidine--tR ligase, cytoplasmic (Histidyl-tR
B3KWE1; B4DDD8; B4E1C5; C9JWK3; E7ETE2;



synthetase, isoform CRA_a) (cD FLJ42841 fis,
P12081; P12081-2; P12081-3; P12081-4



clone BRCOC2003213, highly similar to



Histidyl-tR synthetase (EC 6.1.1.21))


B3KWE1
Histidine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic
B3KWE1; B4DDD8; B4E1C5; P12081; P12081-



(Histidyl-tRNA synthetase, isoform CRA_a)
2; P12081-3; P12081-4



(cDNA FLJ42841 fis, clone BRCOC2003213,



highly similar to Histidyl-tRNA synthetase (EC



6.1.1.21))


B3KRS5
Histone deacetylase (EC 3.5.1.98)
B3KRS5; E5RFI6; E5RFP9; E5RG37; E5RGV4;




E5RH52; E5RHE7; E5RJ04; H3BM24; J3KPW7;




Q13547; Q5TEE2; Q92769


Q13547
Histone deacetylase 1 (HD1) (EC 3.5.1.98)
Q13547; Q5TEE2


O75446
Histone deacetylase complex subunit SAP30 (30 kDa
O75446



Sin3-associated polypeptide) (Sin3



corepressor complex subunit SAP30)



(Sin3-associated polypeptide p30)


P07305
Histone H1.0 (Histone H1′) (Histone H1(0))
P07305



[Cleaved into: Histone H1.0, N-terminally



processed]


P10412
Histone H1.4 (Histone H1b) (Histone H1s-4)
P10412; P16402; P16403; P22492; Q02539


P16401
Histone H1.5 (Histone H1a) (Histone H1b)
P16401; Q9UPA5



(Histone H1s-3)


B4DEB1
Histone H3
B4DEB1; K7EK07; K7EMV3; K7EP01; K7ES00;




P68431; P84243; Q16695; Q6NXT2; Q71DI3


P68431
Histone H3.1 (Histone H3/a) (Histone H3/b)
P68431; Q16695; Q5TEC6; Q71DI3



(Histone H3/c) (Histone H3/d) (Histone H3/f)



(Histone H3/h) (Histone H3/i) (Histone H3/j)



(Histone H3/k) (Histone H3/l)


P62805
Histone H4
P62805


E9PC52
Histone-binding protein RBBP7
E9PC52; Q16576; Q16576-2; Q5JP01


C9JAJ9
Histone-binding protein RBBP7
C9JAJ9; E9PC52; E9PIC4; E9PNS2; E9PNS6;




Q09028; Q09028-2; Q09028-3; Q16576; Q16576-2


Q6NXR6
Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase setd3
Q6NXR6; Q86TU7; Q86TU7-2; Q86TU7-3



(SETD3 protein)


B7Z5N8
Homeobox protein Hox-B3 (cDNA FLJ51054,
B7Z5N8; B7ZAD0; F8VXG0; O43365; P14651;



highly similar to Homeobox protein Hox-B3)
P31249


F8WAQ7
Hsc70-interacting protein (Hip)
F8WAQ7; P50502; Q8NFI4; F6VDH7; H7C3I1



(Aging-associated protein 2) (Progesterone



receptor-associated p48 protein) (Protein



FAM10A1) (Putative tumor suppressor ST13)



(Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-33)



(Suppression of tumorigenicity 13 protein)


Q01581
Hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA synthase,
Q01581



cytoplasmic (HMG-CoA synthase) (EC 2.3.3.10)



(3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A



synthase)


P00492
Hypoxanthine-guanine
P00492



phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)



(HGPRTase) (EC 2.4.2.8)


B7Z909
Hypoxia up-regulated protein 1#
B7Z909; E9PJ21; E9PL22; Q9Y4L1


B1P7G3
ICSU (ISCU)
B1P7G3; B3KQ30; B4DNC9; F5H5N2; Q9H1K1;




Q9H1K1-2


P01876
Ig alpha-1 chain C region
P01876; P01877


P01857
Ig gamma-1 chain C region
P01857


P01859
Ig gamma-2 chain C region
P01859


P01765
Ig heavy chain V-III region TIL
P01765; P01774; P01776; P01779


P01764
Ig heavy chain V-III region VH26
P01764


P01834
Ig kappa chain C region
P01834


P01596
Ig kappa chain V-I region CAR
P01596; P01598


P80748
Ig lambda chain V-III region LOI
P80748


P01714
Ig lambda chain V-III region SH
P01714


A0M8Q6
Ig lambda-7 chain C region
A0M8Q6; B9A064; P0CG04


O00629
Importin subunit alpha-3 (Importin alpha Q1)
O00629



(Qip1) (Karyopherin subunit alpha-4)


O95373
Importin-7 (Imp7) (Ran-binding protein 7)
O95373



(RanBP7)


E7ETK5
Inosine-5′-monophosphate dehydrogenase 2
E7ETK5; H0Y4R1; P12268


E5RG13
Inositol monophosphatase 1
E5RG13; H0YBL1; P29218; P29218-3; E5RIP7


O00425
Insulin-like growth factor 2 mRNA-binding protein
O00425; Q9NZI8



3 (IGF2 mRNA-binding protein 3) (IMP-3) (IGF-II



mRNA-binding protein 3) (KH domain-containing



protein overexpressed in cancer) (hKOC)



(VICKZ family member 3)


Q9Y287
Integral membrane protein 2B (Immature BRI2)
Q9Y287-2; Q9Y287; U3KQL7



(imBRI2) (Protein E25B) (Transmembrane



protein BRI) (Bri) [Cleaved into: BRI2, membrane



form (Mature BRI2) (mBRI2); BRI2 intracellular



domain (BRI2 ICD); BRI2C, soluble form; Bri23



peptide (Bri2-23) (ABri23) (C-terminal peptide)



(P23 peptide)]


A8MYE6
Integrin beta
A8MYE6; P05107


H7C4N8
Integrin beta-1
H7C4N8; P05556; P05556-2; P05556-3; P05556-




4; P05556-5


H0YG72
Integrin-alpha FG-GAP repeat-containing protein 2
H0YG72


Q9BYX4
Interferon-induced helicase C domain-containing
Q9BYX4



protein 1 (EC 3.6.4.13) (Clinically amyopathic



dermatomyositis autoantigen 140 kDa)



(CADM-140 autoantigen) (Helicase with 2 CARD



domains) (Helicard) (Interferon-induced with



helicase C domain protein 1) (Melanoma



differentiation-associated protein 5) (MDA-5)



(Murabutide down-regulated protein) (RIG-I-like



receptor 2) (RLR-2) (RNA helicase-DEAD box



protein 116)


Q12906
Interleukin enhancer-binding factor 3
Q12906; Q12906-2; Q12906-3; Q12906-4; Q12906-5;



(Double-stranded R-binding protein 76)
Q12906-6; Q12906-7



(DRBP76) (M-phase phosphoprotein 4) (MPP4)



(Nuclear factor associated with dsR) (NFAR)



(Nuclear factor of activated T-cells 90 kDa)



(NF-AT-90) (Translatiol control protein 80)



(TCP80)


Q9H1K1
Iron-sulfur cluster assembly enzyme ISCU,
Q9H1K1; Q9H1K1-2



mitochondrial (NifU-like N-terminal



domain-containing protein) (NifU-like protein)


C9JE02
Isoamyl acetate-hydrolyzing esterase 1 homolog
C9JE02; H7C5G1; Q2TAA2


O43837
Isocitrate dehydrogenase [NAD] subunit beta,
O43837; O43837-3; O43837-2



mitochondrial (EC 1.1.1.41) (Isocitric



dehydrogenase subunit beta) (NAD(+)-specific



ICDH subunit beta)


B4DFL2
Isocitrate dehydrogenase [NADP],
B4DFL2; B4DSZ6; H0YL11; P48735



mitochondrial#


H0YKD0
Isocitrate dehydrogese [D] subunit alpha,
H0YKD0; H0YL72; H0YLI6; H0YM64; H0YNF8;



mitochondrial
P50213


J3KR24
Isoleucine--tR ligase, cytoplasmic (Isoleucine-tR
J3KR24; P41252; Q5TCC4



synthetase, isoform CRA_d)


Q13907
Isopentenyl-diphosphate Delta-isomerase 1 (EC
Q13907; Q13907-2



5.3.3.2) (Isopentenyl pyrophosphate isomerase



1) (IPP isomerase 1) (IPPI1)


H0YLC3
Isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase, mitochondrial
H0YLC3; P26440; P26440-2


P33176
Kinesin-1 heavy chain (Conventional kinesin
P33176



heavy chain) (Ubiquitous kinesin heavy chain)



(UKHC)


Q04760
Lactoylglutathione lyase (EC 4.4.1.5)
Q04760; Q04760-2



(Aldoketomutase) (Glyoxalase I) (Glx I)



(Ketone-aldehyde mutase) (Methylglyoxalase)



(S-D-lactoylglutathione methylglyoxal lyase)


A2T926
Lamina-associated polypeptide 2, isoforms
A2T926; G5E972; H0YJH7; P42166; P42167;



beta/gamma#
P42167-2


C9JES9
Lamin-B receptor
C9JES9; C9JXK0; Q14739


P20700
Lamin-B1
P20700


E5RH50
La-related protein 1
Q6PKG0; Q6PKG0-3; E5RH50


F8VNV1
La-related protein 4
F8VY40; F8W1Z5; Q71RC2; Q71RC2-2; Q71RC2-




3; Q71RC2-4; Q71RC2-5; Q71RC2-6; Q71RC2-7;




F8VNV1


Q96AG4
Leucine-rich repeat-containing protein 59
Q96AG4



(Ribosome-binding protein p34) (p34)


B4DEH5
Leukotriene A-4 hydrolase (cDNA FLJ51712,
B4DEH5; P09960; P09960-2; P09960-3; P09960-4



moderately similar to Leukotriene A-4 hydrolase



(EC 3.3.2.6))


F6S2S5
LIM and SH3 domain protein 1
F6S2S5; K7ESD6; Q14847; Q14847-2; Q14847-




3; C9J9W2


F5H5G1
Limbic system-associated membrane protein
C9J5G3; F5H5G1; H3BLU2; Q13448


I3L1H3
Lipopolysaccharide-induced tumor necrosis
I3L1H3; Q99732



factor-alpha factor


P06858
Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) (EC 3.1.1.34)
P06858


A8MW50
L-lactate dehydrogenase (EC 1.1.1.27)
A8MW50; F5H155; F5H245; F5H5G7; G3XAP5;




P00338; P00338-2; P00338-3; P00338-4;




P00338-5; P07195; P07864; Q6ZMR3


P00338
L-lactate dehydrogenase A chain (LDH-A) (EC
P00338; P00338-3; P00338-4



1.1.1.27) (Cell proliferation-inducing gene 19



protein) (LDH muscle subunit) (LDH-M) (Renal



carcinoma antigen NY-REN-59)


K7EJE8
Lon protease homolog, mitochondrial (EC
P36776-3; K7EJE8; K7EKE6; K7ER27; P36776;



3.4.21.—) (Lon protease-like protein)
P36776-2



(Mitochondrial ATP-dependent protease Lon)



(Serine protease 15)


O60488
Long-chain-fatty-acid--CoA ligase 4 (EC 6.2.1.3)
O60488; O60488-2



(Long-chain acyl-CoA synthetase 4) (LACS 4)


A8MYV2
LUC7-like (S. cerevisiae) (LUC7-like (S. cerevisiae),
A8MYV2; B8ZZ10; Q96HJ9-2; Q9NQ29; Q9NQ29-



isoform CRA_f) (Putative
2; Q9NQ29-3; Q9Y383; Q9Y383-2; Q9Y383-3



RNA-binding protein Luc7-like 1)


P05455
Lupus La protein (La autoantigen) (La
P05455



ribonucleoprotein) (Sjoegren syndrome type B



antigen) (SS-B)


F8W6P5
LVV-hemorphin-7
F8W6P5; P68871


O94772
Lymphocyte antigen 6H (Ly-6H)
O94772; O94772-2


B1ALG6
Lymphoid-specific helicase
B1ALG6; Q9NRZ9; Q9NRZ9-2; Q9NRZ9-3;




Q9NRZ9-4; Q9NRZ9-5; Q9NRZ9-6; Q9NRZ9-




7; Q9NRZ9-8


Q9HD34
LYR motif-containing protein 4
Q9HD34


H3BPV7
Lysine--tRNA ligase
H3BPV7; H3BVA8; J3KRL2; Q15046; Q15046-2


B4DWL3
Lysosome-associated membrane glycoprotein
B4DWL3; P11279



1#


F8VV32
Lysozyme C
F8VV32; P61626


P40121
Macrophage-capping protein (Actin regulatory
B8ZZL6; E7ENU9; P40121; P40121-1



protein CAP-G)


A2A2V1
Major prion protein
A2A2V1; P04156; P04156-2


G3XAL0
Malate dehydrogenase (EC 1.1.1.37)
B9A041; C9JF79; P40925; P40925-2; P40925-




3; C9JRL3


F5GX14
Malectin
F5H1S8; H0YG07; Q14165


Q9ULC4
Malignant T-cell-amplified sequence 1 (MCT-1)
Q9ULC4; Q9ULC4-2; Q9ULC4-3



(Multiple copies T-cell malignancies)


B7Z1L3
Membrane-associated progesterone receptor
O15173; O15173-2; B7Z1L3; O00264



component 1


P55145
Mesencephalic astrocyte-derived neurotrophic
P55145



factor (Arginine-rich protein) (Protein ARMET)


P02795
Metallothionein-2 (MT-2) (Metallothionein-2A)
P02795; P04732; P13640; P13640-2; P80297;



(Metallothionein-II) (MT-II)
Q8N339


O94776
Metastasis-associated protein MTA2
O94776



(Metastasis-associated 1-like 1) (MTA1-L1



protein) (p53 target protein in deacetylase



complex)


Q13505
Metaxin-1 (Mitochondrial outer membrane import
Q13505; Q13505-2; Q13505-3



complex protein 1)


A6NC17
Methionine--tR ligase, cytoplasmic
A6NC17; P56192


P22033
Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase, mitochondrial
P22033



(MCM) (EC 5.4.99.2) (Methylmalonyl-CoA



isomerase)


K7EM59
Methylthioribose-1-phosphate isomerase
Q9BV20; K7EM59


A6NCE7
Microtubule-associated proteins 1A/1B light
A6NCE7; H3BTL1; Q9GZQ8



chain 3 beta 2 (Microtubule-associated proteins



1A/1B light chain 3B-like)


Q9Y3D6
Mitochondrial fission 1 protein (FIS1 homolog)
Q9Y3D6



(hFis1) (Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 11)



(TPR repeat protein 11)


K7EIT2
Mitochondrial import inner membrane
K7EIT2; Q9Y5L4



translocase subunit Tim13 (Translocase of inner



mitochondrial membrane 13 homolog (Yeast),



isoform CRA_b)


Q9NS69
Mitochondrial import receptor subunit TOM22
Q9NS69



homolog (hTom22) (1C9-2) (Translocase of outer



membrane 22 kDa subunit homolog)


O94826
Mitochondrial import receptor subunit TOM70
O94826



(Mitochondrial precursor proteins import



receptor) (Translocase of outer membrane 70 kDa



subunit)


B9A067
Mitochondrial inner membrane protein
B9A067; C9J406; H7C463; Q16891; Q16891-




2; Q16891-3; Q16891-4


P28482
Mitogen-activated protein kinase 1 (MAP kinase
P28482; P28482-2



1) (MAPK 1) (EC 2.7.11.24) (ERT1)



(Extracellular signal-regulated kinase 2) (ERK-2)



(MAP kinase isoform p42) (p42-MAPK)



(Mitogen-activated protein kinase 2) (MAP



kinase 2) (MAPK 2)


Q9UKD2
mRNA turnover protein 4 homolog
Q9UKD2


H0YDS7
MutS protein homolog 5
H0YDS7


O00499
Myc box-dependent-interacting protein 1
O00499-10; O00499-11; O00499-2; O00499-



(Amphiphysin II) (Amphiphysin-like protein)
4; O00499-6; O00499-7; O00499-8; O00499-9



(Box-dependent myc-interacting protein 1)



(Bridging integrator 1)


P02689
Myelin P2 protein (Peripheral myelin protein 2)
P02689; P05413; S4R371; S4R3A2


J3QRS3
Myosin regulatory light chain 12A (Myosin
J3QRS3; O14950; P19105



regulatory light chain MRCL3, isoform CRA_b)


F8W6L6
Myosin-10
F8W6L6; P35579; P35579-2; P35580; P35580-




2; P35580-3; P35580-4; P35749; P35749-2;




P35749-3; P35749-4; P35580-5


F2Z2U8
Myosin-14
F2Z2U8; G8JLL9; P35579; P35749; P35749-




2; P35749-3; P35749-4; Q7Z406; Q7Z406-2;




Q7Z406-4; Q7Z406-5; Q7Z406-6


P35579
Myosin-9 (Cellular myosin heavy chain, type A)
P35579; B1AH99; Q5BKV1



(Myosin heavy chain 9) (Myosin heavy chain,



non-muscle IIa) (Non-muscle myosin heavy



chain A) (NMMHC-A) (Non-muscle myosin



heavy chain IIa) (NMMHC II-a) (NMMHC-IIA)


B4DGT0
N(G),N(G)-dimethylarginine
B4DGT0; B4DYP1; O94760; O94760-2



dimethylaminohydrolase 1 (cDNA FLJ54083,



highly similar to NG,NG-dimethylarginine



dimethylaminohydrolase 1 (EC 3.5.3.18))


O43505
N-acetyllactosaminide
O43505



beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase (EC



2.4.1.149)



(I-beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase)



(iGnT) (Poly-N-acetyllactosamine extension



enzyme) (UDP-GlcNAc:betaGal



beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase 1)


Q9H0A0
N-acetyltransferase 10 (EC 2.3.1.—)
Q9H0A0-2; Q9H0A0


A8MZB2
N-acetyltransferase 5 (ARD1 homolog, S. cerevisiae),
A8MZB2; P61599; P61599-2



isoform CRA_a



(N-alpha-acetyltransferase 20)


A6NKZ2
N-acylglucosamine 2-epimerase
A6NKZ2; P51606


Q8NFW8
N-acylneuraminate cytidylyltransferase (EC
Q8NFW8



2.7.7.43) (CMP-N-acetylneuraminic acid



synthase) (CMP-NeuNAc synthase)


P23368
NAD-dependent malic enzyme, mitochondrial
P23368; P23368-2



(NAD-ME) (EC 1.1.1.38) (Malic enzyme 2)


E7EMD0
NADPH--cytochrome P450 reductase
E7EMD0; E7EPN3; E7EVY7; F5H468; H0Y4R2;




P16435


Q9BXJ9
N-alpha-acetyltransferase 15, NatA auxiliary
Q9BXJ9; Q9BXJ9-4



subunit (Gastric cancer antigen Ga19)



(N-terminal acetyltransferase) (NMDA



receptor-regulated protein 1) (Protein



tubedown-1) (Tbdn100)


B0AZT5
N-alpha-acetyltransferase 50 (cDNA FLJ51877,
B0AZT5; C9J5D1; E7EQ69; Q9GZZ1; Q9GZZ1-2



highly similar to Homo sapiens Mak3 homolog



(MAK3), mRNA) (cDNA, FLJ79525, highly



similar to Homo sapiens Mak3 homolog (MAK3),



mRNA)


B1AKJ5
Nardilysin (Nardilysin (N-arginine dibasic
B1AKJ5; F5H7V1; G3V1R5; O43847; O43847-2



convertase), isoform CRA_d)


E9PAV3
Nascent polypeptide-associated complex subunit
E9PAV3; E9PAV3-2; F8VNW4; F8VZ58; F8VZJ2;



alpha, muscle-specific form (Alpha-NAC,
F8W0W4; F8W1N5; H0YHX9; Q13765



muscle-specific form) (skNAC)


F8W050
Nck-associated protein 1-like
F8W050; P55160; P55160-2


H7BYX6
Neural cell adhesion molecule 1
H7BYX6; P13591; P13591-1; P13591-3; P13591-




4; P13591-5; R4GMN9; S4R389; S4R3Z6


H9KV31
Neural cell adhesion molecule 2
H9KV31; O15394


O00533
Neural cell adhesion molecule L1-like protein
C9J905; C9JW79; O00533; O00533-2; C9JH36



(Close homolog of L1) [Cleaved into: Processed



neural cell adhesion molecule L1-like protein]


E7ERL8
Neurexin-1-beta
E7ERL8; F5GYC7; F8WB18; Q9ULB1; Q9ULB1-




2; Q9ULB1-3; H0YJL2; Q9Y4C0; Q9Y4C0-4


Q9Y4C0
Neurexin-3 (Neurexin III-alpha)
Q9Y4C0; Q9Y4C0-4



(Neurexin-3-alpha)


Q9HDB5
Neurexin-3-beta (Neurexin III-beta) [Cleaved
Q9HDB5; Q9HDB5-2; Q9HDB5-3; Q9HDB5-



into: Neurexin-3-beta, soluble form;
4; Q9Y4C0; Q9Y4C0-3; Q9Y4C0-4



Neurexin-3-beta, C-terminal fragment



(NRXN3-CTF)]


Q09666
Neuroblast differentiation-associated protein
Q09666



AHNAK (Desmoyokin)


P29120
Neuroendocrine convertase 1 (NEC 1) (EC
P29120; P29120-2



3.4.21.93) (Prohormone convertase 1)



(Proprotein convertase 1) (PC1)


D6RBU5
Neurofascin
D6RBU5; F8W791; F8W792; F8W8X7; F8W9B6;




F8WAT1; H7BY57; J3QSX2; O94856; O94856-




10; O94856-11; O94856-12; O94856-13;




O94856-2; O94856-3; O94856-4; O94856-5;




O94856-6; O94856-7; O94856-8; O94856-9;




X6RKN2


O95502
Neuronal pentraxin receptor
O95502


Q15818
Neuronal pentraxin-1 (NP1) (Neuronal pentraxin
Q15818



I) (NP-I)


Q5BLP8
Neuropeptide-like protein C4orf48
Q5BLP8; Q5BLP8-2; X6RBU3


B7Z1I4
Neurotrimin (cDNA FLJ57258, highly similar to
B7Z1I4; B7Z1Z5; F8VTR5; Q9P121; Q9P121-



Neurotrimin)
2; Q9P121-3; Q9P121-4


E9PKU7
Neutral alpha-glucosidase AB
E9PKU7; F5H6X6; Q14697; Q14697-2


Q96TA1
Niban-like protein 1 (Meg-3) (Melanoma invasion
Q96TA1; Q96TA1-2



by ERK) (MINERVA) (Protein FAM129B)


P35228
Nitric oxide synthase, inducible (EC 1.14.13.39)
P35228; P35228-2



(Hepatocyte NOS) (HEP-NOS) (Inducible NO



synthase) (Inducible NOS) (iNOS) (NOS type II)



(Peptidyl-cysteine S-nitrosylase NOS2)


J3KN36
Nodal modulator 3
J3KN36; P69849; Q15155; Q5JPE7; Q5JPE7-2


P05204
Non-histone chromosomal protein HMG-17
P05204



(High mobility group nucleosome-binding



domain-containing protein 2)


Q9Y266
Nuclear migration protein nudC (Nuclear
Q9Y266



distribution protein C homolog)


Q12769
Nuclear pore complex protein Nup160 (160 kDa
Q12769



nucleoporin) (Nucleoporin Nup160)


H3BPA9
Nuclear pore complex protein Nup93
H3BVG0; Q8N1F7; Q8N1F7-2; H3BPA9


H3BRV9
Nuclear transport factor 2
H3BRV9; P61970


Q02818
Nucleobindin-1 (CALNUC)
H7BZI1; Q02818


B7Z7A3
Nucleolar GTP-binding protein 1#
B7Z7A3; Q5T3R7; Q9BZE4


H0YDU4
Nucleolar protein 56
H0YDU4; O00567; Q5JXT2


H7BZ72
Nucleolar protein 58
H7BZ72; Q9Y2X3


Q9NR30
Nucleolar RNA helicase 2 (EC 3.6.4.13) (DEAD
Q9NR30; Q9NR30-2



box protein 21) (Gu-alpha) (Nucleolar RNA



helicase Gu) (Nucleolar RNA helicase II) (RH



II/Gu)


E9PKP7
Nucleolar transcription factor 1
E9PKP7; P17480; P17480-2


P19338
Nucleolin (Protein C23)
P19338


H7BYF2
Nucleoporin p58/p45
H7BYF2; Q5JRG1; Q9BVL2; Q9BVL2-2; Q9BVL2-3


P12270
Nucleoprotein TPR (Megator) (NPC-associated
P12270



intranuclear protein) (Translocated promoter



region protein)


E7ERL0
Nucleoside diphosphate kinase A
E7ERL0; F6XY72; J3KPD9; O60361; P15531;




P15531-2; P22392; P22392-2; Q32Q12; C9K028


B3KNT8
Nucleosome assembly protein 1-like 1
B3KNT8; B7Z9C2; F5H4R6; F8VRJ2; F8VV59;




F8VVB5; F8VY35; F8W020; F8W0J6; F8W118;




F8W543; H0YH88; H0YHC3; H0YIV4; P55209


C9JZI7
Nucleosome assembly protein 1-like 4
C9JZ17; H0YCI4; Q99733; Q99733-2


E5RFP0
NudC domain-containing protein 2
E5RFP0; Q8WVJ2


Q14982
Opioid-binding protein/cell adhesion molecule
Q14982-4; Q14982; Q14982-2; Q14982-3



(OBCAM) (OPCML) (Opioid-binding cell



adhesion molecule) (IgLON family member 1)


Q92882
Osteoclast-stimulating factor 1
Q92882


D6R9C5
Osteopontin
D6R9C5; P10451; P10451-2; P10451-3; P10451-




4; P10451-5


B1AKJ6
Oxysterol-binding protein
B1AKJ6; E9PJW9; J3KPA3; Q96SU4; Q96SU4-




2; Q96SU4-3; Q96SU4-4; Q96SU4-5; Q96SU4-




6; Q96SU4-7


P19021
Peptidyl-glycine alpha-amidating monooxygese
P19021; P19021-2; P19021-3; P19021-4; P19021-



(PAM) [Includes: Peptidylglycine
5; P19021-6



alpha-hydroxylating monooxygese (PHM) (EC



1.14.17.3); Peptidyl-alpha-hydroxyglycine



alpha-amidating lyase (EC 4.3.2.5)



(Peptidylamidoglycolate lyase) (PAL)]


A2BFH1
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase A-like 4G
A2BFH1; C9J5S7; F5H284; F8WE65; P62937;



(PPlase A-like 4G) (EC 5.2.1.8) (Peptidylprolyl
Q9Y536



cis-trans isomerase A-like 4)


H0Y8J0
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase D (PPlase D)
Q08752; H0Y8J0



(EC 5.2.1.8) (40 kDa peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans



isomerase) (Cyclophilin-40) (CYP-40)



(Cyclophilin-related protein) (Rotamase D)


P30405
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase F,
P30405



mitochondrial (PPlase F) (EC 5.2.1.8)



(Cyclophilin D) (CyP-D) (CypD) (Cyclophilin F)



(Mitochondrial cyclophilin) (CyP-M) (Rotamase



F)


P62942
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase FKBP1A
P62942



(PPlase FKBP1A) (EC 5.2.1.8) (12 kDa



FK506-binding protein) (12 kDa FKBP)



(FKBP-12) (Calstabin-1) (FK506-binding protein



1A) (FKBP-1A) (Immunophilin FKBP12)



(Rotamase)


P26885
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase FKBP2
P26885



(PPlase FKBP2) (EC 5.2.1.8) (13 kDa



FK506-binding protein) (13 kDa FKBP)



(FKBP-13) (FK506-binding protein 2) (FKBP-2)



(Immunophilin FKBP13) (Rotamase)


G3V5F2
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase FKBP3
G3V5F2; Q00688


K7EN45
Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase
K7EN45; Q13526



NIMA-interacting 1


Q15269
Periodic tryptophan protein 2 homolog
Q15269


P32119
Peroxiredoxin-2 (EC 1.11.1.15) (Natural killer
P32119; Q06830



cell-enhancing factor B) (NKEF-B) (PRP)



(Thiol-specific antioxidant protein) (TSA)



(Thioredoxin peroxidase 1)



(Thioredoxin-dependent peroxide reductase 1)


H7C3T4
Peroxiredoxin-4 (EC 1.11.1.15) (Antioxidant
H7C3T4; Q06830; Q13162



enzyme AOE372) (AOE37-2) (Peroxiredoxin IV)



(Prx-IV) (Thioredoxin peroxidase AO372)



(Thioredoxin-dependent peroxide reductase



A0372)


P30041
Peroxiredoxin-6 (EC 1.11.1.15) (1-Cys
P30041



peroxiredoxin) (1-Cys PRX) (24 kDa protein)



(Acidic calcium-independent phospholipase A2)



(aiPLA2) (EC 3.1.1.—) (Antioxidant protein 2)



(Liver 2D page spot 40) (Non-selenium



glutathione peroxidase) (NSGPx) (EC 1.11.1.9)



(Red blood cells page spot 12)


Q8WW12
PEST proteolytic signal-containing nuclear
Q8WW12; Q8WW12-2



protein (PCNP) (PEST-containing nuclear



protein)


Q7RTV0
PHD finger-like domain-containing protein 5A
Q7RTV0



(PHD finger-like domain protein 5A) (Splicing



factor 3B-associated 14 kDa protein) (SF3b14b)


F8VVM2
Phosphate carrier protein, mitochondrial
F8VVM2; Q00325; Q00325-2


P30086
Phosphatidylethanolamine-binding protein 1
P30086



(PEBP-1) (HCNPpp) (Neuropolypeptide h3)



(Prostatic-binding protein) (Raf kinase inhibitor



protein) (RKIP) [Cleaved into: Hippocampal



cholinergic neurostimulating peptide (HCNP)]


Q96S96
Phosphatidylethanolamine-binding protein 4
Q96S96



(PEBP-4) (hPEBP4) (Protein cousin-of-RKIP 1)


F5GWE5
Phosphatidylinositol transfer protein alpha
F5GWE5; I3L459; I3L4H1; Q00169



isoform


E9PJT1
Phosphatidylinositol-binding clathrin assembly
E9PJT1; E9PK13; Q13492; Q13492-2; Q13492-



protein
3; Q13492-5


B4DW73
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase [GTP],
H0YM31; Q16822; Q16822-2; B4DW73; H0YML5



mitochondrial (cDNA FLJ50710, highly similar to



Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (GTP),



mitochondrial (EC 4.1.1.32)) (cDNA, FLJ79105,



highly similar to Phosphoenolpyruvate



carboxykinase (GTP), mitochondrial (EC



4.1.1.32))


E7ERH5
Phosphoglycerate kinase 1
E7ERH5; P00558


P15259
Phosphoglycerate mutase 2 (EC 3.1.3.13) (EC
P15259; P18669; Q8N0Y7



5.4.2.11) (EC 5.4.2.4) (BPG-dependent PGAM 2)



(Muscle-specific phosphoglycerate mutase)



(Phosphoglycerate mutase isozyme M)



(PGAM-M)


C9JDH0
Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
C9JDH0; C9JDU5; C9JJS3; C9K0K7; E7EPA1;



synthase-associated protein 2
E7EW35; I3L164; I3L331; O60256; O60256-3


E9PBS1
Phosphoribosylaminoimidazole carboxylase
E9PBS1; P22234; P22234-2


F8WEF0
Phosphoribosylaminoimidazolecarboxamide
C9JLK0; F5GWY2; P31939; P31939-1



formyltransferase


Q9Y617
Phosphoserine aminotransferase (EC 2.6.1.52)
Q9Y617; Q9Y617-2



(Phosphohydroxythreonine aminotransferase)



(PSAT)


I3L4N7
Pigment epithelium-derived factor
I3L4N7; P36955


F5GZA6
PILR alpha-associated neural protein
Q8IYJ0; Q8IYJ0-2; F5GZA6; F5H0N9; F5H191


Q9H307
Pinin (140 kDa nuclear and cell adhesion-related
Q9H307; Q9H307-2



phosphoprotein) (Desmosome-associated



protein) (Domain-rich serine protein) (DRS



protein) (DRSP) (Melanoma metastasis clone A



protein) (Nuclear protein SDK3) (SR-like protein)


B4E1F0
Plasma protease C1 inhibitor#
B4E1F0; B4E1H2; E9PGN7; H9KV48; P05155


Q8NC51
Plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 RNA-binding
Q8NC51; Q8NC51-2; Q8NC51-3; Q8NC51-4



protein (PAI1 RNA-binding protein 1) (PAI-RBP1)



(SERPINE1 mRNA-binding protein 1)


P13796
Plastin-2 (L-plastin) (LC64P) (Lymphocyte
P13796



cytosolic protein 1) (LCP-1)


B4DGB4
Plastin-3#
B4DGB4; B4DI60; B7Z6M1; F8W8D8; P13797


P08567
Pleckstrin (Platelet 47 kDa protein) (p47)
P08567


Q15149
Plectin (PCN) (PLTN) (Hemidesmosomal protein
Q15149; Q15149-2; Q15149-3; Q15149-4; Q15149-



1) (HD1) (Plectin-1)
5; Q15149-6; Q15149-7; Q15149-8; Q15149-9


Q15365
Poly(rC)-binding protein 1 (Alpha-CP1)
Q15365



(Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein E1)



(hnRNP E1) (Nucleic acid-binding protein



SUB2.3)


E7EQV3
Polyadenylate-binding protein 1
E7EQV3; E7ERJ7; H0YAS6; H0YAS7; H0YB75;




H0YC10; P11940; P11940-2; Q9H361


B4DEH8
Polyadenylate-binding protein 2 (cDNA
B4DEH8; G3V4T2; H0YJH9; Q86U42; Q86U42-



FLJ57714, highly similar to Poly(A)-binding
2; Q92843-2



protein 2)


C9J2C3
Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 3
C9J2C3; Q14435; Q14435-2; Q8NCL4; S4R3S5


K7EKJ7
Polypyrimidine tract-binding protein 1
K7EKJ7; K7ELW5; K7ES59; P26599; P26599-




2; P26599-3


A5A3E0
POTE ankyrin domain family member F
A5A3E0; I3L1U9; P0CG38; P0CG39; P60709;



(ANKRD26-like family C member 1B) (Chimeric
P62736; P63261; P63267; P63267-2; P68032;



POTE-actin protein)
P68133; Q562R1; Q5T8M7; Q6S8J3; Q9BYX7;




I3L4N8; F5H6T1; P61160; P61160-2; B4DXP9;




F5H3I4; P61163; R4GMT0


E5RGS4
Prefoldin subunit 1
E5RGS4; O60925


Q9UHV9
Prefoldin subunit 2
Q9UHV9


F5H2A7
Prefoldin subunit 3
F5H2A7; P61758


A2AB88
Prefoldin subunit 6
A2AB88; O15212


P02545
Prelamin-A/C [Cleaved into: Lamin-A/C (70 kDa
H0YAB0; P02545; P02545-2; P02545-3; P02545-



lamin) (Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-32)]
4; P02545-5; P02545-6; Q5TCI9


O75400
Pre-mRNA-processing factor 40 homolog A (Fas
O75400; O75400-2; O75400-3



ligand-associated factor 1) (Formin-binding



protein 11) (Formin-binding protein 3) (Huntingtin



yeast partner A) (Huntingtin-interacting protein



10) (HIP-10) (Huntingtin-interacting protein A)



(Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-6)


I3L3Z8
Pre-mRNA-processing-splicing factor 8
I3L3Z8; Q6P2Q9


Q92620
Pre-mRNA-splicing factor ATP-dependent RNA
Q92620



helicase PRP16 (EC 3.6.4.13) (ATP-dependent



RNA helicase DHX38) (DEAH box protein 38)


Q8IY81
pre-rRNA processing protein FTSJ3 (EC 2.1.1.—)
Q8IY81



(2′-O-ribose RNA methyltransferase SPB1



homolog) (Protein ftsJ homolog 3) (Putative



rRNA methyltransferase 3)


Q5JRX3
Presequence protease, mitochondrial (hPreP)
Q5JRX3; Q5JRX3-2; Q5JRX3-3



(EC 3.4.24.—) (Pitrilysin metalloproteinase 1)



(Metalloprotease 1) (hMP1)


C9JMU5
Probable ATP-dependent R helicase DDX17
C9JMU5; H3BLZ8; Q92841; Q92841-1; Q92841-




2; Q92841-3


B4DLW8
Probable ATP-dependent R helicase DDX5 (cD
B4DLW8; J3KRX8; J3KTA4; J3QKN9; J3QR02;



FLJ59339, highly similar to Probable
J3QRQ7; P17844



ATP-dependent R helicase DDX5 (EC 3.6.1.—))


Q9BUQ8
Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX23
Q9BUQ8



(EC 3.6.4.13) (100 kDa U5 snRNP-specific



protein) (DEAD box protein 23) (PRP28



homolog) (U5-100 kD)


Q9UKR5
Probable ergosterol biosynthetic protein 28
Q9UKR5


A2RTX5
Probable threonine--tRNA ligase 2, cytoplasmic
A2RTX5; A2RTX5-2; E7ERI3; G3XAN9; P26639;



(EC 6.1.1.3) (Threonyl-tRNA synthetase)
P26639-2



(ThrRS) (Threonyl-tRNA synthetase-like protein



2)


B4DR87
Procollagen-lysine, 2-oxoglutarate 5-dioxygenase
B4DR87; Q02809



1#


C9JU11
Procollagen-lysine, 2-oxoglutarate 5-dioxygenase 3
C9JU11; H7C2A8; O60568


K7EJ44
Profilin 1, isoform CRA_b (Profilin-1)
K7EJ44; P07737


Q8WUM4
Programmed cell death 6-interacting protein
Q8WUM4; Q8WUM4-2; C9IZF9; F8WBR8; F8WEQ8



(PDCD6-interacting protein) (ALG-2-interacting



protein 1) (ALG-2-interacting protein X) (Hp95)


K7ESJ4
Programmed cell death protein 5
K7ESJ4; O14737; Q3HM38


C9JW96
Prohibitin
C9JW96; C9JZ20; E7ESE2; E9PCW0; P35232


F5GWA7
Prohibitin-2
F5GWA7; F5GY37; J3KPX7; Q99623


F8VR77
Proliferation-associated protein 2G4 (Cell cycle
F8VR77; Q9UQ80



protein p38-2G4 homolog) (hG4-1)



(ErbB3-binding protein 1)


P48147
Prolyl endopeptidase (PE) (EC 3.4.21.26)
P48147



(Post-proline cleaving enzyme)


Q9UHG2
ProSAAS (Proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin
Q9UHG2



type 1 inhibitor) (Proprotein convertase 1



inhibitor) (pro-SAAS) [Cleaved into: KEP; Big



SAAS (b-SAAS); Little SAAS (I-SAAS)



(N-proSAAS); Big PEN-LEN (b-PEN-LEN)



(SAAS CT(1-49)); PEN; Little LEN (I-LEN); Big



LEN (b-LEN) (SAAS CT(25-40))]


O15354
Prosaposin receptor GPR37 (Endothelin B
O15354



receptor-like protein 1) (ETBR-LP-1) (G-protein



coupled receptor 37) (Parkin-associated



endothelin receptor-like receptor) (PAELR)


Q16186
Proteasomal ubiquitin receptor ADRM1 (110 kDa
Q16186



cell membrane glycoprotein) (Gp110)



(Adhesion-regulating molecule 1) (ARM-1)



(Proteasome regulatory particle non-ATPase 13)



(hRpn13) (Rpn13 homolog)


B4DEV8
Proteasome subunit alpha type (EC 3.4.25.1)
B4DEV8; F5GX11; P25786; P25786-2


F5GX11
Proteasome subunit alpha type-1
F5GX11; P25786; P25786-2


G3V4X5
Proteasome subunit alpha type-3 (EC 3.4.25.1)
G3V4X5; P25788; P25788-2



(Macropain subunit C8) (Multicatalytic



endopeptidase complex subunit C8)



(Proteasome component C8)


H0YN18
Proteasome subunit alpha type-4
H0YN18; P25789; P25789-2


P28066
Proteasome subunit alpha type-5 (EC 3.4.25.1)
P28066; P28066-2



(Macropain zeta chain) (Multicatalytic



endopeptidase complex zeta chain)



(Proteasome zeta chain)


H0Y586
Proteasome subunit alpha type-7
H0Y586; O14818; O14818-2; Q8TAA3; Q8TAA3-




2; Q8TAA3-5


P20618
Proteasome subunit beta type-1 (EC 3.4.25.1)
P20618



(Macropain subunit C5) (Multicatalytic



endopeptidase complex subunit C5)



(Proteasome component C5) (Proteasome



gamma chain)


P49721
Proteasome subunit beta type-2 (EC 3.4.25.1)
P49721



(Macropain subunit C7-I) (Multicatalytic



endopeptidase complex subunit C7-I)



(Proteasome component C7-I)


J3KRR2
Proteasome subunit beta type-3
J3KRR2; J3KSM3; J3QKR3; P49720


P28070
Proteasome subunit beta type-4 (EC 3.4.25.1)
P28070



(26 kDa prosomal protein) (HsBPROS26)



(PROS-26) (Macropain beta chain)



(Multicatalytic endopeptidase complex beta



chain) (Proteasome beta chain) (Proteasome



chain 3) (HsN3)


P28074
Proteasome subunit beta type-5 (EC 3.4.25.1)
P28074; P28074-3



(Macropain epsilon chain) (Multicatalytic



endopeptidase complex epsilon chain)



(Proteasome chain 6) (Proteasome epsilon



chain) (Proteasome subunit MB1) (Proteasome



subunit X)


E9PIX6
Protein arginine N-methyltransferase 1
E9PIX6; E9PKG1; E9PQ98; H7C2I1; Q99873;




Q99873-2; Q99873-3; Q99873-4


O14744
Protein arginine N-methyltransferase 5 (EC
O14744; O14744-2



2.1.1.—) (72 kDa ICIn-binding protein)



(Histone-arginine N-methyltransferase PRMT5)



(EC 2.1.1.125) (Jak-binding protein 1) (Shk1



kinase-binding protein 1 homolog) (SKB1



homolog) (SKB1Hs) [Cleaved into: Protein



arginine N-methyltransferase 5, N-terminally



processed]


F8WCF6
Protein ARPC4-TTLL3
F8WCF6; F8WDD7; P59998; P59998-2; P59998-3


C9JNV2
Protein BUD31 homolog
C9JNV2; P41223; P41223-2


Q9BT09
Protein canopy homolog 3 (CTG repeat protein
Q9BT09



4a) (Expanded repeat-domain protein CAG/CTG



5) (Protein associated with TLR4) (Trinucleotide



repeat-containing gene 5 protein)


Q9UKY7
Protein CDV3 homolog
Q9UKY7; Q9UKY7-2


Q5TDH0
Protein DDI1 homolog 2
Q5TDH0; Q5TDH0-2; Q5TDH0-3


B4DFG0
Protein DEK (cD FLJ53031, highly similar to
B4DFG0; D6R9L5; P35659



Protein DEK)


G5EA52
Protein disulfide isomerase family A, member 3,
G5EA52; P30101



isoform CRA_b (Protein disulfide-isomerase A3)


I3L312
Protein disulfide-isomerase
I3L312; I3L3P5; P07237


P13667
Protein disulfide-isomerase A4 (EC 5.3.4.1)
P13667



(Endoplasmic reticulum resident protein 70) (ER



protein 70) (ERp70) (Endoplasmic reticulum



resident protein 72) (ER protein 72) (ERp-72)



(ERp72)


Q15084
Protein disulfide-isomerase A6 (EC 5.3.4.1)
Q15084-5; Q15084-3; Q15084-4; Q15084; Q15084-2



(Endoplasmic reticulum protein 5) (ER protein 5)



(ERp5) (Protein disulfide isomerase P5)



(Thioredoxin domain-containing protein 7)


K7ELW0
Protein DJ-1
Q99497; K7ELW0


Q5VUD6
Protein FAM69B
Q5VUD6; Q5VUD6-2


Q13045
Protein flightless-1 homolog
Q13045; Q13045-2; Q13045-3


F8VVB6
Protein kinase C-binding protein NELL2
F8VVB6; Q99435; Q99435-2; Q99435-3; Q99435-4


F8VVB6
Protein kise C-binding protein NELL2
F8VVB6; Q99435; Q99435-2; Q99435-3; Q99435-4


B4E2N0
Protein LZIC#
B4E2N0; K7ES95; Q8WZA0


E9PL57
Protein NEDD8-MDP1
E9PL57; E9PS38; F8VSA6; H3BP08; H3BTT7;




Q15011; Q15011-2; Q15011-3; Q15011-4;




Q15843; S4R3E9


F6XY72
Protein NME1-NME2
F6XY72; O60361; P22392; P22392-2; Q32Q12


Q9BVG4
Protein PBDC1 (Polysaccharide biosynthesis
A6NDF3; P11532; E9PDN5; P11532-4; Q4G0X0;



domain-containing protein 1)
Q9BVG5


O15355
Protein phosphatase 1G (EC 3.1.3.16) (Protein
O15355



phosphatase 1C) (Protein phosphatase 2C



isoform gamma) (PP2C-gamma) (Protein



phosphatase magnesium-dependent 1 gamma)


E7EVG2
Protein polybromo-1
E7EVG2; H0Y5B5; Q86U86; Q86U86-2; Q86U86-




3; Q86U86-4; Q86U86-5; Q86U86-6; Q86U86-




7; Q86U86-8; Q86U86-9


Q9P258
Protein RCC2 (RCC1-like protein TD-60)
Q9P258



(Telophase disk protein of 60 kDa)


O15258
Protein RER1
O15258; Q5T091; Q5T092


H0Y3V9
Protein RPL36A-HNRNPH2
H0Y3V9; H0Y5B4; H7BY91; H7BZ11; J3KQN4;




P83881


Q14690
Protein RRP5 homolog (NF-kappa-B-binding
Q14690



protein) (NFBP) (Programmed cell death protein



11)


P60903
Protein S100-A10 (Calpactin I light chain)
P60903



(Calpactin-1 light chain) (Cellular ligand of



annexin II) (S100 calcium-binding protein A10)



(p10 protein) (p11)


P26447
Protein S100-A4 (Calvasculin) (Metastasin)
P26447



(Placental calcium-binding protein) (Protein



Mts1) (S100 calcium-binding protein A4)


Q01105
Protein SET (HLA-DR-associated protein II)
Q01105; Q01105-2; Q01105-3; Q01105-4



(Inhibitor of granzyme A-activated Dse) (IGAAD)



(PHAPII) (Phosphatase 2A inhibitor I2PP2A)



(I-2PP2A) (Template-activating factor I) (TAF-I)


P0DME0
Protein SETSIP (SET pseudogene protein 18)
Q01105; Q01105-2; Q01105-3; Q01105-4; P0DME0



(SET similar protein) (Similar to SET



translocation protein)


A6NIF9
Protein transport protein Sec61 subunit alpha
A6NIF9; A6NK38; B4DR61; C9JJV4; C9JXC6;



isoform 2
F2Z2C7; F8W776; H7C069; H7C1Q9; P61619;




Q8TC24; Q9H9S3; Q9H9S3-2; Q9H9S3-3


B7Z972
Protein-L-isoaspartate O-methyltransferase (EC
B7Z972; C9J0F2; H7BY58; P22061; P22061-2



2.1.1.77)


H0Y6Z4
Protein-methionine sulfoxide oxidase MICAL1
H0Y6Z4; Q8TDZ2; Q8TDZ2-2; Q8TDZ2-4


H0YA52
Pterin-4-alpha-carbinolamine dehydratase 2
H0YA52; P61457; Q9H0N5


K7ENC1
Purine-rich element-binding protein gamma
Q00577; Q96QR8; Q9H598; K7ENC1; Q9UJV8;




Q9UJV8-2


B7Z463
Puromycin-sensitive aminopeptidase#
B7Z463; E9PLK3; P55786


B2RPK0
Putative high mobility group protein B1-like 1
B2RPK0; P09429; P23497; Q5T7C0; Q5T7C4;



(High mobility group protein B1 pseudogene 1)
Q5T7C6



(Putative high mobility group protein 1-like 1)



(HMG-1L1)


A6NI72
Putative neutrophil cytosol factor 1B (NCF-1B)
A6NI72; C9J155; P14598; P14598-2



(Putative SH3 and PX domain-containing protein



1B)


A2A3N6
Putative PIP5K1A and PSMD4-like protein
A2A3N6; A6PVX3; P55036; P55036-2; Q5VWC4



(PIP5K1A-PSMD4)


O43143
Putative pre-mRNA-splicing factor
O43143



ATP-dependent RNA helicase DHX15 (EC



3.6.4.13) (ATP-dependent RNA helicase #46)



(DEAH box protein 15)


P98179
Putative RNA-binding protein 3 (RNA-binding
P98179



motif protein 3) (RNPL)


A8MWD9
Putative small nuclear ribonucleoprotein G-like
A8MWD9; C9JVQ0; P62308



protein 15


H3BQ34
Pyruvate kinase (EC 2.7.1.40)
H3BQ34; H3BTN5; P14618; P14618-2; P14618-3


P30613
Pyruvate kinase PKLR (EC 2.7.1.40) (Pyruvate
P30613; P30613-2



kinase 1) (Pyruvate kinase isozymes L/R)



(R-type/L-type pyruvate kinase) (Red cell/liver



pyruvate kinase)


E9PNV3
Radixin
P35241; P35241-3; P35241-5; E9PNV3


C9JDM3
Ran-specific GTPase-activating protein
C9JIC6; C9JJ34; C9JXG8; P43487; C9JDM3;




C9JGV6; P43487-2


E5RH42
Ras GTPase-activating protein-binding protein 1
E5RH42; E5RI46; E5RIF8; E5RIZ6; E5RJU8;




Q13283; Q5HYE9


H0YLE8
Ras GTPase-activating-like protein IQGAP1
H0YLE8; P46940


B1AH77
Ras-related C3 botulinum toxin substrate 1 (Cell
B1AH77; B1AH80; P15153; P63000; P63000-



migration-inducing gene 5 protein) (Ras-like
2; B1AH78



protein TC25) (p21-Rac1)


P61026
Ras-related protein Rab-10
P61026


Q6IQ22
Ras-related protein Rab-12
Q6IQ22


P51153
Ras-related protein Rab-13 (Cell
P51153; P61026



growth-inhibiting gene 4 protein)


P61106
Ras-related protein Rab-14
P61106; X6RFL8


E9PKL7
Ras-related protein Rab-2A
E9PKL7; H0YD31; P61019; P61019-2


F5H157
Ras-related protein Rab-35
F5H157; Q15286


F8VSF8
Ras-related protein Rab-5C
F8VVK3; K7ERI8; K7ERQ8; P51148; P51148-




2; F8VWU4; F8VSF8


C9IZZ0
Ras-related protein Rab-7a
C9IZZ0; C9J4S4; C9J4V0; C9J592; C9J7D1;




C9J8S3; P51149


B4DEK7
Ras-related protein Rab-8A#
B4DEK7; B7Z8M7; E7END7; E7ETK2; E9PLD0;




F5GY21; H0YL94; H0YLJ8; H0YMN7; H0YNE9;




P51153; P59190; P59190-2; P61006; P61026;




P62820; P62820-2; P62820-3; Q92928;




Q92930; Q9H0U4; F5H157; Q15286; Q15286-2


H7C3P7
Ras-related protein Ral-A
H7C3P7; P11233


E7ESV4
Ras-related protein Rap-1b
E7ESV4; F5GWU8; F5GX62; F5GYB5; F5GYH7;




F5H004; F5H077; F5H0B7; F5H491; F5H4H0;




F5H500; F5H6R7; F5H7Y6; F8WBC0; P61224;




P61224-2; P61224-3; P61224-4; P62834


A6NIZ1
Ras-related protein Rap-1b-like protein
A6NIZ1; E7ESV4; F5GWU8; F5GX62; F5GYB5;




F5GYH7; F5H004; F5H0B7; F5H491; F5H4H0;




F5H500; F5H6R7; F5H7Y6; P61224; P61224-




2; P61224-3; P62834; F5H077


Q96PK6
R-binding protein 14 (Paraspeckle protein 2)
Q96PK6



(PSP2) (R-binding motif protein 14)



(RRM-containing coactivator



activator/modulator) (Syptotagmin-interacting



protein) (SYT-interacting protein)


D6R9K7
R-binding protein 4
D6R9K7; E9PB51; E9PLB0; E9PM61; J3QRR5;




Q9BQ04; Q9BWF3; Q9BWF3-2; Q9BWF3-




3; Q9BWF3-4; U3KQD5


H3BPE7
R-binding protein FUS
H3BPE7; P35637; P35637-2; K7EPT6; Q92804;




Q92804-2


P23471
Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase zeta
P23471-3; P23471; P23471-2



(R-PTP-zeta) (EC 3.1.3.48) (Protein-tyrosine



phosphatase receptor type Z polypeptide 1)



(Protein-tyrosine phosphatase receptor type Z



polypeptide 2) (R-PTP-zeta-2)


J3KQ66
Reelin
J3KQ66; P78509; P78509-2; P78509-3


A2A2M0
Regulation of nuclear pre-mRNA
A2A2M0; Q9NQG5



domain-containing protein 1B


Q92900
Regulator of nonsense transcripts 1 (EC 3.6.4.—)
Q92900; Q92900-2



(ATP-dependent helicase RENT1) (Nonsense



mR reducing factor 1) (NORF1) (Up-frameshift



suppressor 1 homolog) (hUpf1)


Q86UN3
Reticulon-4 receptor-like 2 (Nogo receptor-like 3)
Q86UN3



(Nogo-66 receptor homolog 1) (Nogo-66



receptor-related protein 2) (NgR2)


B7Z6Z4
Retinal cone rhodopsin-sensitive cGMP
B7Z6Z4; F8VPF3; F8W1I5; F8W1R7; G3V1V0;



3′,5′-cyclic phosphodiesterase subunit gamma
G8JLA2; J3KND3; P14649; P60660; P60660-2



(cDNA FLJ56329, highly similar to Myosin light



polypeptide 6)


I3L2N6
Retinoid-inducible serine carboxypeptidase
I3L2N6; I3L4Z3; Q9HB40; Q9HB40-2


J3KNF6
RGM domain family member B
J3KNF6; Q6NW40


J3KTF8
Rho GDP-dissociation inhibitor 1
J3QQX2; P52565; J3KTF8


F5H2R5
Rho GDP-dissociation inhibitor 2
F5H2R5; F5H6Q0; H0YGX7; P52566; F5H3P3


E9PNR6
Rho GTPase-activating protein 1
E9PNR6; H0YE29; Q07960


Q5TBB1
Ribonuclease H2 subunit B (RNase H2 subunit
Q5TBB1-2; Q5TBB1



B) (Aicardi-Goutieres syndrome 2 protein)



(AGS2) (Deleted in lymphocytic leukemia 8)



(Ribonuclease HI subunit B)


E9PAU2
Ribonucleoprotein PTB-binding 1
E9PAU2; Q8IY67-2


E7ENU7
Ribosomal protein L15
E7ENU7; E7EQV9; P61313


B1AXG1
Ribosomal protein S6 kinase alpha-3
B7Z3B5; D6R910; F2Z2J1; J3KRK0; J3QLK5;




Q15349; Q15349-2; Q15349-3; Q5TI62; Q86UE8;




Q86UE8-2; Q86UE8-3; Q9UKI8; Q9UKI8-




2; Q9UKI8-3; Q9UKI8-4; Q9UKI8-5; B1AXG1;




B4DG22; B7ZB17; B7ZL90; E7ERL6; E7EWQ5;




E9PGT3; E9PRI4; F5GYC4; F8WAQ9;




J3QT34; O15021; O15021-1; O15021-2; O15021-




3; O60307; P51812; Q15418; Q15418-2;




Q15418-3; Q6P0Q8; Q6P0Q8-2; Q96GX5; Q96GX5-




2; Q96GX5-3; Q9UK32; Q9Y2H9; V9GXZ1


Q9Y3A5
Ribosome maturation protein SBDS
Q9Y3A5



(Shwachman-Bodian-Diamond syndrome



protein)


Q5VXN0
Ribosome production factor 2 homolog
Q5VXNO; Q9H7B2


F8W7S5
Ribosome-binding protein 1
F8W7S5; Q9P2E9; Q9P2E9-2; Q9P2E9-3


Q96PK6
RNA-binding protein 14 (Paraspeckle protein 2)
Q96PK6; Q96PK6-2



(PSP2) (RNA-binding motif protein 14)



(RRM-containing coactivator



activator/modulator) (Synaptotagmin-interacting



protein) (SYT-interacting protein)


H3BPE7
RNA-binding protein FUS
H3BPE7; P35637; P35637-2


Q9NRX1
RNA-binding protein PNO1
Q9NRX1


Q5QPL9
RNA-binding protein Raly
Q5QPL9; Q9UKM9; Q9UKM9-2; Q5QPM0


M0QXL5
rR 2′-O-methyltransferase fibrillarin
M0QXL5; M0R0P1; M0R1H0; M0R299; M0R2B0;




M0R2Q4; M0R2U2; P22087


M0QXL5
rRNA 2′-O-methyltransferase fibrillarin
M0QXL5; M0R0P1; M0R1H0; M0R299; M0R2B0;




M0R2Q4; M0R2U2; P22087


A6NHQ2
rRNA/tRNA 2′-O-methyltransferase fibrillarin-like
M0QXL5; M0R0P1; M0R299; M0R2Q4; P22087;



protein 1 (EC 2.1.1.—) (Protein-glutamine
A6NHQ2; R4GMW7



methyltransferase)


Q5JTH9
RRP12-like protein
Q5JTH9; Q5JTH9-2; Q5JTH9-3


E7ETR0
RuvB-like 1
E7ETR0; H7C4G5; H7C4I3; Q9Y265; Q9Y265-2


H7BXE3
SAFB-like transcription modulator
H7BXE3; Q9NWH9


B1AVU8
Saposin-D
B1AVU8; C9JIZ6; P07602; P07602-2; P07602-3


H7C5W9
Sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum calcium
H7C5W9; P16615; P16615-2; P16615-3; P16615-



ATPase 2
4; P16615-5; Q93084; Q93084-2; Q93084-




3; Q93084-4; Q93084-5; Q93084-6; Q93084-7


E9PAV3
scent polypeptide-associated complex subunit
E9PAV3; F8VNW4; F8VZJ2; F8W0W4; F8W1N5;



alpha, muscle-specific form (Alpha-C,
H0YHX9; Q13765; Q13765-2



muscle-specific form) (skC)


P05060
Secretogranin-1 (Chromogranin-B) (CgB)
P05060



(Secretogranin I) (SgI) [Cleaved into: GAWK



peptide; CCB peptide]


P13521
Secretogranin-2 (Chromogranin-C)
P13521



(Secretogranin II) (SgII) [Cleaved into:



Secretoneurin (SN)]


Q8WXD2
Secretogranin-3 (Secretogranin III) (SgIII)
Q8WXD2


C9JQI2
Secretoneurin
P13521; C9JQI2


B0QYH4
Seizure 6-like protein
B0QYH4; B0QYH5; Q9BYH1; Q9BYH1-2; Q9BYH1-




3; Q9BYH1-4; Q9BYH1-5; Q9BYH1-6;




Q9BYH1-7


F5GYX3
Semaphorin-7A
F5GYX3; O75326; O75326-2


B5MCX3
Septin-2
B5MCX3; H7C2Y0; Q15019; Q15019-2


E7EPK1
Septin-7
E7EPK1; E7ES33; G3V1Q4; Q16181; Q16181-




2; Q5JXL7


K7EIE4
Septin-9
K7EIE4; K7EK18; K7EL40; K7ELJ9; K7EQD7;




K7ER52; Q9UHD8; Q9UHD8-2; Q9UHD8-3;




Q9UHD8-4; Q9UHD8-5; Q9UHD8-7; Q9UHD8-




8; Q9UHD8-9


G3V241
Serine hydroxymethyltransferase, mitochondrial
P34897; P34897-2; P34897-3; G3V241; G3V2E4;




G3V2W0; G3V3Y8; G3V4T0; G3V4W5;




G3V4X0; G3V540; G3V5L0


Q92743
Serine protease HTRA1 (EC 3.4.21.—)
Q92743



(High-temperature requirement A serine



peptidase 1) (L56) (Serine protease 11)


B4E241
Serine/arginine-rich splicing factor 3#
B4E241; P84103


J3KSW7
Serine/arginine-rich-splicing factor 1
J3KSW7; J3KTL2; J3QQV5; Q07955; Q07955-




2; Q07955-3


C9JAB2
Serine/arginine-rich-splicing factor 7
C9JAB2; Q16629; Q16629-2; Q16629-3; Q16629-4


O94804
Serine/threonine-protein kinase 10 (EC 2.7.11.1)
O94804; Q9H2G2; Q9H2G2-2



(Lymphocyte-oriented kinase)


Q13177
Serine/threonine-protein kise PAK 2 (EC
Q13177



2.7.11.1) (Gamma-PAK) (PAK65) (S6/H4 kise)



(p21-activated kise 2) (PAK-2) (p58) [Cleaved



into: PAK-2p27 (p27); PAK-2p34 (p34)



(C-t-PAK2)]


B1AKS5
Serine/threonine-protein kise PAK 3
Q13177; B1AKS5; O75914; O75914-2; O75914-




3; O75914-4


E9PMD7
Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase (EC
E9PMD7; F8VYE8; F8W0W8; P36873; P36873-



3.1.3.16)
2; P62136; P62136-2; P62136-3; P62140


E5RFR9
Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 55 kDa
E5RFR9; P63151; P63151-2; Q9Y2T4; Q9Y2T4-



regulatory subunit B alpha isoform
2; Q9Y2T4-3; Q9Y2T4-4


B3KQV6
Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 65 kDa
B3KQV6; C9J9C1; F5H3X9; J3KR29; P30153;



regulatory subunit A alpha isoform (cD FLJ33169
P30154; P30154-2; P30154-3; P30154-4



fis, clone ADRGL2000384, highly similar to



Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 65 kDa



regulatory subunit A alpha isoform)


A6PVN5
Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A
A6PVN5; A6PVN9; B4DZF8; H0Y562; H0Y6E5;



activator
Q15257; Q15257-2; Q15257-3; Q15257-4


Q08209
Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2B
Q08209-2; Q08209-3



catalytic subunit alpha isoform (EC 3.1.3.16)



(CAM-PRP catalytic subunit)



(Calmodulin-dependent calcineurin A subunit



alpha isoform)


B4DNJ6
Serine-threonine kinase receptor-associated
B4DNJ6; Q9Y3F4



protein (cDNA FLJ51909, highly similar to



Serine-threonine kinase



receptor-associatedprotein)


P49591
Serine--tR ligase, cytoplasmic (EC 6.1.1.11)
P49591; Q5T507



(Seryl-tR synthetase) (SerRS)



(Seryl-tR(Ser/Sec) synthetase)


J3KN47
Serotransferrin
C9JVG0; J3KN47; P02786


C9JTJ8
Serpin B8
C9JTJ8; C9JVA8; H7BXK7; P35237; P50452;




P50452-2


Q9BXP5
Serrate RNA effector molecule homolog
H7C3A1; Q9BXP5; Q9BXP5-2; Q9BXP5-3; Q9BXP5-



(Arsenite-resistance protein 2)
4; Q9BXP5-4


B7WNR0
Serum albumin
B7WNR0; C9JKR2; H7C013; P02768; P02768-2


C9JZ99
Serum paraoxonase/lactonase 3
C9JZ99; F8WD41; Q15166; F5H4W9; P27169


P10768
S-formylglutathione hydrolase (FGH) (EC
P10768



3.1.2.12) (Esterase D)



(Methylumbelliferyl-acetate deacetylase) (EC



3.1.1.56)


O75368
SH3 domain-binding glutamic acid-rich-like
O75368



protein


H0YKT4
Signal peptidase complex catalytic subunit
P67812-4; P67812-3; H0YKT4; H0YNG3; P67812;



SEC11A
P67812-2


E9PI68
Signal peptidase complex subunit 2
E9PI68; E9PL01; H0YE04; Q15005


G3V346
Signal recognition particle 54 kDa protein
G3V3L9; G3V480; P61011; G3V346


H0Y9L6
Sister chromatid cohesion protein PDS5
H0Y9L6; Q29RF7



homolog A


Q5T0V3
Slit homolog 1 protein
Q5T0V3


K7EJB5
Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein Sm D2
P62316; P62316-2; K7EJB5


B3KVR1
Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein-associated
B3KVR1; J3KRY3; J3QLE5; P14678; P14678-



protein N#
2; P14678-3; P63162; S4R3P3


B4DUC8
S-methyl-5′-thioadenosine phosphorylase (EC
B4DUC8; F2Z2F3; J3QSB7; Q13126; Q13126-



2.4.2.28) (5′-methylthioadenosine
2; Q13126-3; Q13126-4; Q13126-5; Q13126-



phosphorylase)
6; Q13126-7


B8ZZ67
SMT3 suppressor of mif two 3 homolog 1
B8ZZ67; B8ZZN6; P63165; P63165-2



(Yeast), isoform CRA_b (Small ubiquitin-related



modifier 1)


G3V3A4
SNW domain-containing protein 1
G3V3A4; G3V4X8; Q13573


P05023
Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit
P05023; P05023-2; P05023-3; P05023-4



alpha-1 (Na(+)/K(+) ATPase alpha-1 subunit)



(EC 3.6.3.9) (Sodium pump subunit alpha-1)


B1AKY9
Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit
B1AKY9; M0R116; P05023; P05023-2; P05023-



alpha-2
3; P05023-4; P13637; P13637-2; P13637-3;




P20648; P50993


M0R116
Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit
M0R116; P05023; P05023-3; P05023-4; P13637;



alpha-3
P13637-2; P13637-3; Q5TC05


F8VX04
Sodium-coupled neutral amino acid transporter 1
F8VX04; Q9H2H9


P61278
Somatostatin (Growth hormone
P61278



release-inhibiting factor) [Cleaved into:



Somatostatin-28; Somatostatin-14]


C9J0K6
Sorcin
P30626-3; C9J0K6; P30626; P30626-2


B4DJS7
Sorting nexin 6, isoform CRA_e (cDNA
B4DJS7; Q9UNH7; Q9UNH7-2



FLJ58001, highly similar to Sorting nexin-6)


Q9UMY4
Sorting nexin-12
Q9UMY4; Q9UMY4-2


B4DEK4
Sorting nexin-2
B4DEK4; O60749; E9PS65; H7C5W5; P41219;




P41219-2


Q96L92
Sorting nexin-27
Q96L92; Q96L92-3


O60493
Sorting nexin-3 (Protein SDP3)
O60493; O60493-3; O60493-4


G3V2U1
Sorting nexin-6
G3V5X9; Q9UNH7; G3V2U1; G3V4Z5; H0YJF8


E5RK62
SPARC
E5RK62; F5GY03; P09486


C9JJR8
SPARC-like protein 1
C9JJR8; D6RA29; F5H331; F5H4Y3; Q14515;




E9PC64


Q9H4F8
SPARC-related modular calcium-binding protein
Q9H4F8; Q9H4F8-2



1 (Secreted modular calcium-binding protein 1)



(SMOC-1)


E5RJR5
S-phase kinase-associated protein 1
E5RJR5; P63208


O75533
Splicing factor 3B subunit 1 (Pre-mRNA-splicing
H7C341; O75534



factor SF3b 155 kDa subunit) (SF3b155)



(Spliceosome-associated protein 155) (SAP 155)


Q15393
Splicing factor 3B subunit 3 (Pre-mR-splicing
Q15393; Q15393-2



factor SF3b 130 kDa subunit) (SF3b130)



(STAF130) (Spliceosome-associated protein



130) (SAP 130)


Q15427
Splicing factor 3B subunit 4 (Pre-mRNA-splicing
Q15427



factor SF3b 49 kDa subunit) (SF3b50)



(Spliceosome-associated protein 49) (SAP 49)


H0Y6J6
Splicing factor 45
H0Y6J6; Q5W010; Q5W011; Q5W012; Q96I25


K7ENG2
Splicing factor U2AF 65 kDa subunit
K7ENG2; P26368; P26368-2


P23246
Splicing factor, proline- and glutamine-rich (100 kDa
P23246; P23246-2



DNA-pairing protein) (hPOMp100)



(DNA-binding p52/p100 complex, 100 kDa



subunit) (Polypyrimidine tract-binding



protein-associated-splicing factor) (PSF)



(PTB-associated-splicing factor)


Q9HCB6
Spondin-1 (F-spondin) (Vascular smooth muscle
Q9HCB6



cell growth-promoting factor)


Q7KZF4
Staphylococcal nuclease domain-containing
H7C597; Q7KZF3



protein 1 (100 kDa coactivator) (EBNA2



coactivator p100) (Tudor domain-containing



protein 11) (p100 co-activator)


P16949
Stathmin (Leukemia-associated phosphoprotein
P16949; P16949-2; A2A2D1



p18) (Metablastin) (Oncoprotein 18) (Op18)



(Phosphoprotein p19) (pp19) (Prosolin) (Protein



Pr22) (pp17)


P38646
Stress-70 protein, mitochondrial (75 kDa
P38646



glucose-regulated protein) (GRP-75) (Heat



shock 70 kDa protein 9) (Mortalin) (MOT)



(Peptide-binding protein 74) (PBP74)


F5GXD8
Stress-induced-phosphoprotein 1 (STI1)
F5GXD8; P31948-3; F5H783; P31948-2; P31948



(Hsc70/Hsp90-organizing protein) (Hop) (Renal



carcinoma antigen NY-REN-11)



(Transformation-sensitive protein IEF SSP 3521)


Q14683
Structural maintenance of chromosomes protein
Q14683



1A (SMC protein 1A) (SMC-1-alpha) (SMC-1A)



(Sb1.8)


D6RFM5
Succinate dehydrogenase [ubiquinone]
D6RFM5; P31040-2; P31040; P31040-3



flavoprotein subunit, mitochondrial


H7C233
Succinyl-CoA ligase [ADP/GDP-forming] subunit
H7C233; P53597



alpha, mitochondrial


P55809
Succinyl-CoA:3-ketoacid coenzyme A
P55809



transferase 1, mitochondrial (EC 2.8.3.5)



(3-oxoacid CoA-transferase 1) (Somatic-type



succinyl-CoA:3-oxoacid CoA-transferase)



(SCOT-s)


O75683
Surfeit locus protein 6
O75683


C9K0U0
SUZ domain-containing protein 1
C9K0U0; F8WEE8; Q7Z422; Q7Z422-2; Q7Z422-




3; Q7Z422-4


F8VXC8
SWI/SNF complex subunit SMARCC2
F8VXC8; Q8TAQ2; Q8TAQ2-2; Q8TAQ2-3; Q92922


O60264
SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated
O60264; P28370; P28370-2



actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily



A member 5 (SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated



actin-dependent regulator of chromatin A5) (EC



3.6.4.—) (Sucrose nonfermenting protein 2



homolog) (hSNF2H)


O15498
Synaptobrevin homolog YKT6 (EC 2.3.1.—)
O15498


Q9H7C4
Syncoilin (Syncoilin intermediate filament 1)
Q9H7C4



(Syncoilin-1)


B1AJQ6
Syntaxin-12
B1AJQ6; Q86Y82


O15400
Syntaxin-7
O15400; O15400-2


I3L305
Syntaxin-8
I3L305; Q9UNK0


P61764
Syntaxin-binding protein 1 (MUNC18-1)
P61764; P61764-2



(N-Sec1) (Protein unc-18 homolog 1) (Unc18-1)



(Protein unc-18 homolog A) (Unc-18A) (p67)


Q5TCU6
Talin-1
Q9Y490; Q5TCU6


H0YMT1
Talin-2
H0YMT1; Q5TCU6; Q9Y490; Q9Y4G6


E7EQR6
T-complex protein 1 subunit alpha
E7EQR6; F5H282; P17987


F5GWF6
T-complex protein 1 subunit beta
F5GWF6; F8VQ14; P78371; P78371-2


B7ZAR1
T-complex protein 1 subunit epsilon (cDNA,
P48643-2; B7ZAR1; E7ENZ3; E9PCA1; P48643



FLJ79275, highly similar to T-complex protein 1



subunit epsilon)


B4DUR8
T-complex protein 1 subunit gamma (cD
E9PM09; E9PRC8; P49368; P49368-2; Q5SZW8;



FLJ57603, highly similar to T-complex protein 1
Q5SZX6; Q5SZX8



subunit gamma) (cD, FLJ78822, highly similar to



T-complex protein 1 subunit gamma) (cD,



FLJ79286, highly similar to T-complex protein 1



subunit gamma)


P50990
T-complex protein 1 subunit theta (TCP-1-theta)
P50990-2; P50990-3; P50990



(CCT-theta) (Renal carcinoma antigen



NY-REN-15)


P10599
Thioredoxin (Trx) (ATL-derived factor) (ADF)
P10599; P10599-2



(Surface-associated sulphydryl protein) (SASP)


P30048
Thioredoxin-dependent peroxide reductase,
P30048-2; P30048



mitochondrial (EC 1.11.1.15) (Antioxidant protein



1) (AOP-1) (HBC189) (Peroxiredoxin III) (Prx-III)



(Peroxiredoxin-3) (Protein MER5 homolog)


K7EKG2
Thioredoxin-like protein 1
K7EKG2; K7EPB7; O43396


E9PB61
THO complex subunit 4
E9PB61; Q86V81


D6R9F8
Threonine--tR ligase, cytoplasmic
P26639; P26639-2; D6R9F8; D6RBR8; D6RCA5;




D6RDJ6


C9JV37
Thrombin light chain
C9JV37; E9PIT3; P00734


E9PIM6
Thy-1 membrane glycoprotein
E9PNQ8; P04216; E9PIM6


B8ZZA1
Thymosin alpha-1
B8ZZA1; B8ZZQ6; B8ZZW7; H7C2N1; P06454;




P06454-2


O75663
TIP41-like protein (Putative MAPK-activating
O75663; O75663-2



protein PM10) (Type 2A-interacting protein) (TIP)


Q08J23
tR (cytosine(34)-C(5))-methyltransferase (EC
Q08J23; Q08J23-2



2.1.1.203) (Myc-induced SUN domain-containing



protein) (Misu) (NOL1/NOP2/Sun domain family



member 2) (Substrate of AIM1/Aurora kise B) (tR



(cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase) (tR



methyltransferase 4 homolog) (hTrm4)


C9J338
TRAF2 and NCK-interacting protein kise
C9J338; E7EN19; E7ENQ1; E7ESS2; F5H5M9;




F5H865; G3XAA2; G5E948; H7C360; I3L2I2;




O95819; O95819-2; O95819-3; O95819-




4; O95819-5; Q8N4C8; Q8N4C8-2; Q8N4C8-




3; Q8N4C8-4; Q8N4C8-5; Q9UKE5; Q9UKE5-




2; Q9UKE5-3; Q9UKE5-4; Q9UKE5-5; Q9UKE5-




6; Q9UKE5-7; Q9UKE5-8


P37837
Transaldolase (EC 2.2.1.2)
P37837


B5MBX2
Transcobalamin-2
B5MBX2; P20062; P20062-2; C9J6W9


B8ZZU8
Transcription elongation factor B (SIII),
B8ZZU8; I3L0M9; Q15370; Q15370-2



polypeptide 2 (18 kDa, elongin B), isoform



CRA_b (Transcription elongation factor B



polypeptide 2)


E5RHG8
Transcription elongation factor B polypeptide 1
E5RHG8; Q15369; Q15369-2


O15391
Transcription factor YY2 (Yin and yang 2) (YY-2)
O15391; P25490



(Zinc finger protein 631)


F2Z2U4
Transformation/transcription domain-associated
Q9BPX3; O75083; O75083-3; Q8WZ42; F2Z2U4;



protein
H0Y4W2; Q8WZ42-10; Q8WZ42-11; Q8WZ42-




12; Q8WZ42-13; Q8WZ42-2; Q8WZ42-




3; Q8WZ42-4; Q8WZ42-5; Q8WZ42-7; Q8WZ42-




8; Q8WZ42-9; Q9Y4A5; Q9Y4A5-2


E7EMZ9
Transforming acidic coiled-coil-containing protein 2
O95359; E7EMZ9; E9PBC6; O95359-3


C9JNR4
Transforming protein RhoA
C9JNR4; C9JX21; E9PN11; E9PQH6; P08134;




P61586; Q5JR05; Q5JR07; Q5JR08


P55072
Transitional endoplasmic reticulum ATPase (TER
P55072



ATPase) (EC 3.6.4.6) (15S Mg(2+)-ATPase p97



subunit) (Valosin-containing protein) (VCP)


B4E022
Transketolase (cDNA FLJ56274, highly similar to
B4E022; P29401; P29401-2



Transketolase (EC 2.2.1.1))


Q92616
Translational activator GCN1 (HsGCN1)
Q92616



(GCN1-like protein 1)


E9PGT1
Translin
E9PGT1; Q15631


Q5TB53
Transmembrane 9 superfamily member 3
Q9HD45; Q5TB53


Q92544
Transmembrane 9 superfamily member 4
Q92544


G3V2K7
Transmembrane emp24 domain-containing
G3V2K7; P49755



protein 10 (21 kDa transmembrane-trafficking



protein) (S31III125) (S31I125) (Tmp-21-I)



(Transmembrane protein Tmp21) (p23) (p24



family protein delta-1) (p24delta1) (p24delta)


E7EQ72
Transmembrane emp24 domain-containing
E7EQ72; Q15363



protein 2


Q7Z7H5
Transmembrane emp24 domain-containing
Q7Z7H5; Q7Z7H5-2; Q7Z7H5-3; F8W7F7



protein 4 (Endoplasmic reticulum



stress-response protein 25) (ERS25)



(GMP25iso) (Putative NF-kappa-B-activating



protein 156) (p24 family protein alpha-3)



(p24alpha3)


P40939
Trifunctional enzyme subunit alpha,
H0YFD6; P40938



mitochondrial (78 kDa gastrin-binding protein)



(TP-alpha) [Includes: Long-chain enoyl-CoA



hydratase (EC 4.2.1.17); Long chain



3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (EC



1.1.1.211)]


P29144
Tripeptidyl-peptidase 2 (TPP-2) (EC 3.4.14.10)
P29144; Q5VZU9



(Tripeptidyl aminopeptidase)



(Tripeptidyl-peptidase II) (TPP-II)


B7Z596
Tropomyosin alpha-1 chain (cDNA FLJ55130,
B7Z596; F5H7S3; H0YK20; H0YK48; H0YKX5;



highly similar to Rattus norvegicus tropomyosin
H0YL42; H0YL52; H0YNC7; H7BYY1; J3KN67;



1, alpha (Tpm1), transcript variant 8, mRNA)
K7EMU5; K7ENT6; K7EP68; K7EPV9; K7ERG3;




P06753; P06753-2; P06753-3; P06753-




4; P06753-5; P07951; P07951-2; P07951-




3; P09493; P09493-10; P09493-2; P09493-3;




P09493-4; P09493-5; P09493-6; P09493-7; P09493-




8; P09493-9; P67936; P67936-2; Q5TCU3;




Q5TCU8; P06753-6; Q5VU59; Q5VU61;




P06753-7; Q6ZN40; U3KQK2


J3KN67
Tropomyosin alpha-3 chain
J3KN67; P06753-2; P06753-3; P06753-6; Q5VU59;




Q5VU61


K7EPB9
Tropomyosin alpha-4 chain
K7EPB9; P67936; P67936-2


F5H5D3
Tubulin alpha-1C chain
F5H5D3; F8VQQ4; F8VRK0; F8VRZ4; F8VS66;




F8VWV9; F8VX09; P68363; Q71U36; Q71U36-




2; Q9BQE3; F8VVB9; P68363-2


C9JDS9
Tubulin alpha-4A chain
P68366-2; C9JDS9; C9JEV8; C9JJQ8; C9JQ00;




F5H5D3; F8VQQ4; P68363; P68366; Q13748;




Q13748-2; Q71U36; Q71U36-2; Q9BQE3


P07437
Tubulin beta chain (Tubulin beta-5 chain)
P07437; P68371; Q13885; Q5JP53; Q5ST81;




Q9BVA1


Q13885
Tubulin beta-2A chain (Tubulin beta class IIa)
Q13885


P68371
Tubulin beta-4B chain (Tubulin beta-2 chain)
P68371



(Tubulin beta-2C chain)


A6PVU8
Tuftelin
H0Y5R1; Q13029; Q13029-2; Q13029-3; Q5THJ1;




Q8WYA1; Q8WYA1-2; Q8WYA1-3; Q8WYA1-




4; Q8WYA1-5; Q8WYA1-6; Q8WYA1-




7; Q8WYA1-8; Q8WYA1-9; A6PVU8; F5H607;




Q9NNX1; Q9NNX1-2; Q9NNX1-3


E5RFR7
Tumor protein D52
E5RFR7; F5H0B0; H0YC44; P55327; P55327-




2; P55327-3; P55327-4; P55327-5; P55327-




6; P55327-7; P55327-8


F5H442
Tumor susceptibility gene 101 protein
F5H442; Q99816


Q86UY0
TXNDC5 protein (Thioredoxin domain-containing
Q86UY0; Q8NBS9; Q8NBS9-2



protein 5)


Q06187
Tyrosine-protein kinase BTK (EC 2.7.10.2)
Q06187; Q06187-2; Q5JY90



(Agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) (ATK)



(B-cell progenitor kinase) (BPK) (Bruton tyrosine



kinase)


P78324
Tyrosine-protein phosphatase non-receptor type
P78324; P78324-2; P78324-4; Q5TFQ8



substrate 1 (SHP substrate 1) (SHPS-1) (Brain



Ig-like molecule with tyrosine-based activation



motifs) (Bit) (CD172 antigen-like family member



A) (Inhibitory receptor SHPS-1) (Macrophage



fusion receptor) (MyD-1 antigen)



(Signal-regulatory protein alpha-1) (Sirp-alpha-1)



(Signal-regulatory protein alpha-2) (Sirp-alpha-2)



(Signal-regulatory protein alpha-3) (Sirp-alpha-3)



(p84) (CD antigen CD172a)


P54577
Tyrosine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic (EC 6.1.1.1)
P54577



(Tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase) (TyrRS) [Cleaved



into: Tyrosine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic,



N-terminally processed]


P08621
U1 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein 70 kDa (U1
P08621; P08621-2; P08621-4



snRNP 70 kDa) (U1-70K) (snRNP70)


B4E0P5
U5 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein 200 kDa
B4E0P5; O75643



helicase (cDNA FLJ56901, highly similar to U5



small nuclear ribonucleoprotein 200 kDa



helicase (EC 3.6.1.—))


B4DQJ1
U5 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein 40 kDa
B4DQJ1; Q96DI7; Q9NSS8



protein#


H0YDS0
Ubiquilin-1
H0YDS0; Q9NRR5; Q9UMX0; Q9UMX0-2


B4DV12
Ubiquitin (cDNA FLJ51326, highly similar to
B4DV12; F5GXK7; F5GYU3; F5GZ39; F5H041;




Homo sapiens ubiquitin B (UBB), mRNA)

F5H265; F5H2Z3; F5H388; J3QKN0; J3QLP7;




J3QRK5; J3QS39; J3QSA3; J3QTR3; K7EMA8;




M0R1M6; M0R1V7; M0R2S1; P0CG47;




P0CG48; P62979; P62987; Q96C32; F5H6Q2;




F5H747


P45974
Ubiquitin carboxyl-termil hydrolase 5 (EC
P45974; P45974-2



3.4.19.12) (Deubiquititing enzyme 5)



(Isopeptidase T) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 5)



(Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 5)


P45974
Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 5 (EC
P45974; P45974-2



3.4.19.12) (Deubiquitinating enzyme 5)



(Isopeptidase T) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 5)



(Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 5)


F5GYJ8
Ubiquitin thioesterase OTUB1
F5GYJ8; F5GYN4; F5H6Q1; J3KR44; Q96FW1


F8W726
Ubiquitin-associated protein 2-like
F8W726; Q14157; Q14157-1; Q14157-3; Q14157-




4; Q14157-5; Q5VU77; Q5VU78; Q5VU79;




Q5VU80; Q5VU81


B4DIZ2
Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 K (cD
B4DIZ2; D6RDM7; P61086; P61086-2



FLJ57995, moderately similar to



Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2-25 kDa (EC



6.3.2.19))


P68036
Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 L3 (EC
P68036; P68036-2; P68036-3



6.3.2.19) (L-UBC) (UbcH7) (Ubiquitin carrier



protein L3) (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme



E2-F1) (Ubiquitin-protein ligase L3)


F8VSD4
Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 N
F8VSD4; F8VV71; F8VZ29; P61088; Q5JXB2


P22314
Ubiquitin-like modifier-activating enzyme 1
P22314; Q5JRR6; P22314-2



(Protein A1S9) (Ubiquitin-activating enzyme E1)


Q3KQV9
UDP-N-acetylhexosamine
Q3KQV9



pyrophosphorylase-like protein 1 (EC 2.7.7.—)


F8W810
Uncharacterized protein
F8W810; H7BZU1; P41091; Q2VIR3; Q2VIR3-2


H3BML4
Uncharacterized protein
H3BML4; H3BRP9; H3BV43; H9KV29; O00241;




O00241-2; P78324; P78324-2


B4DUC5
Uncharacterized protein (cD FLJ53202, highly
B4DUC5; P55060; P55060-3; P55060-4



similar to Exportin-2)


B4DWJ2
Uncharacterized protein (cD FLJ54314, highly
B4DWJ2; P47897



similar to Glutaminyl-tR synthetase (EC



6.1.1.18))


Q9UKN7
Unconventional myosin-XV (Unconventional
Q9UKN7



myosin-15)


Q969H8
UPF0556 protein C19orf10 (Interleukin-25)
Q969H8



(IL-25) (Stromal cell-derived growth factor SF20)


E7EUC7
UTP--glucose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase
C9JQU9; C9JUW1; C9JWG0; E7EUC7; F2Z3H1;




Q16851; Q16851-2; C9JNZ1; C9JTZ5; C9JVG2


K7ELW1
UV excision repair protein RAD23 homolog A
K7ELW1; K7ENJ0; P54725; P54725-2; P54727;




Q5W0S4; Q5W0S5; P54725-3


P54727
UV excision repair protein RAD23 homolog B
P54727; Q5W0S4; Q5W0S5



(HR23B) (hHR23B) (XP-C repair-complementing



complex 58 kDa protein) (p58)


O75436
Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 26A
O75436; O75436-2; S4R3Q6; S4R2Y3



(Vesicle protein sorting 26A) (hVPS26)


F8VXU5
Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 29
F8VXU5; Q05DG7; Q9UBQ0; Q9UBQ0-2


Q96QK1
Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 35
Q96QK1



(hVPS35) (Maternal-embryonic 3) (Vesicle



protein sorting 35)


P26640
Valine--tRNA ligase (EC 6.1.1.9) (Protein G7a)
P26640



(Valyl-tRNA synthetase) (VaIRS)


H3BPZ1
Very-long-chain (3R)-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA
H3BPZ1; H3BS72; Q9P035



dehydratase 3


Q9P0L0
Vesicle-associated membrane
Q9P0L0; Q9P0L0-2



protein-associated protein A (VAMP-A)



(VAMP-associated protein A) (VAP-A) (33 kDa



VAMP-associated protein) (VAP-33)


E5RK64
Vesicle-associated membrane
E5RK64; O95292; O95292-2



protein-associated protein B/C


D6RBV2
Vesicular integral-membrane protein VIP36
D6RBV2; D6RDX1; Q12907; D6RIU4


H0Y394
Vigilin
H0Y394; Q00341; Q00341-2


P08670
Vimentin
P08670


P18206
Vinculin (Metavinculin) (MV)
P18206; P18206-2; Q5JQ13


P21796
Voltage-dependent anion-selective channel
P21796



protein 1 (VDAC-1) (hVDAC1) (Outer



mitochondrial membrane protein porin 1)



(Plasmalemmal porin) (Porin 31HL) (Porin



31HM)


A2A3S1
Voltage-dependent anion-selective channel
A2A3S1; P45880; P45880-1; P45880-2; Q5JSD1;



protein 2
Q5JSD2


A6NLU5
V-set and transmembrane domain-containing
A6NLU5



protein 2B


B7Z1R5
V-type proton ATPase catalytic subunit A#
B7Z1R5; C9JVW8; P38606; C9JA17


E7EV59
V-type proton ATPase subunit C 1 (V-ATPase
E7EV59; P21283; Q8NEY4; Q8NEY4-2



subunit C 1) (Vacuolar proton pump subunit C 1)


G3V2S6
V-type proton ATPase subunit D
G3V2S6; G3V559; H0YJ55; H0YJS0; Q9Y5K8


P36543
V-type proton ATPase subunit E 1 (V-ATPase
P36543; P36543-3; Q96A05; C9J8H1; P36543-2



subunit E 1) (V-ATPase 31 kDa subunit) (p31)



(Vacuolar proton pump subunit E 1)


Q15904
V-type proton ATPase subunit S1 (V-ATPase
Q15904



subunit S1) (Protein XAP-3) (V-ATPase Ac45



subunit) (V-ATPase S1 accessory protein)



(Vacuolar proton pump subunit S1)


O75083
WD repeat-containing protein 1 (Actin-interacting
D6RD66; O75083; O75083-3



protein 1) (AIP1) (NORI-1)


Q9UNX4
WD repeat-containing protein 3
Q9UNX4


Q96MR6
WD repeat-containing protein 65
Q96MR6


Q6ZMY6
WD repeat-containing protein 88 (PQQ repeat
Q6ZMY6; Q6ZMY6-2



and WD repeat-containing protein)


G8JLB2
Xaa-Pro aminopeptidase 1#
G8JLB2; Q5T6H2; Q5T6H7; Q9NQW7; Q9NQW7-




2; Q9NQW7-3


P12955
Xaa-Pro dipeptidase (X-Pro dipeptidase) (EC
P12955; P12955-2; P12955-3



3.4.13.9) (Imidodipeptidase) (Peptidase D)



(Proline dipeptidase) (Prolidase)


P17040
Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein
P17040-4



20 (Zinc finger protein 31) (Zinc finger protein



360) (Zinc finger protein KOX29)


Q96NC0
Zinc finger matrin-type protein 2
Q96NC0; R4GNG8


Q96KM6
Zinc finger protein 512B
Q96KM6


H3BQQ2
Zinc finger protein 598
H3BQQ2; Q86UK7; Q86UK7-2; Q86UK7-3









Table 2 discloses proteins whose peptides were found to be regulated by at least 60% in the CSF of AD patients compared to CSF of non-AD subjects. Uniprot ID=annotated ID during data search; Protein names=protein name/s given to matched sequence; All Uniprot matches=All Uniprot IDs that match to the peptide sequence detected at the time of invention. Hash (#) indicates those proteins that were annotated as “merged with ###” and which have been re-searched in Uniprot. Asterisk (*) indicates those proteins which were annotated as deleted as the entry has been removed from Uniprot (due to redundancy).


In one embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, or at least two or more, optionally at least three or all biomarkers selected from the group of Apolipoprotein E, Secretogranin-1, Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 65 kDa regulatory subunit A alpha isoform, Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1, RuvB-like 1, cDNA FLJ54806, Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2, Ras-related protein Rab-13, Serum albumin and Pigment epithelium-derived factor.


The biomarker panel may comprise phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, optionally two or more biomarkers selected from Table 1 and/or Table 2 and/or Table 3 or fragments thereof.











TABLE 3





Uniprot ID
Protein Name
All Uniprot matches







P61981
14-3-3 protein gamma (Protein kinase C inhibitor protein 1)
P61981



(KCIP-1) [Cleaved into: 14-3-3 protein gamma,



N-terminally processed]


E9PG15
14-3-3 protein theta
E9PG15; P27348


E9PL38
26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit 13
E9PL38; H0YD73; J3KNQ3;




Q9UNM6; Q9UNM6-2


E9PS50
40S ribosomal protein S13
E9PS50; J3KMX5; P62277


P47914
60S ribosomal protein L29 (Cell surface heparin-binding
P47914



protein HIP)


P62424
60S ribosomal protein L7a (PLA-X polypeptide) (Surfeit
P62424; Q5T8U2



locus protein 3)


E7EMM4
Acid ceramidase
E7EMM4; E7ERV9; Q13510;




Q13510-2; Q13510-3


B7Z683
Active breakpoint cluster region-related protein (cDNA
B7Z683; I3L0R7; Q12979;



FLJ54747, highly similar to Active breakpoint cluster
Q12979-2; Q12979-4



region-related protein)


P43652
Afamin (Alpha-albumin) (Alpha-Alb)
P43652


P02763
Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 1 (AGP 1) (Orosomucoid-1)
P02763



(OMD 1)


P19652
Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2 (AGP 2) (Orosomucoid-2)
P19652



(OMD 2)


G3V3A0
Alpha-1-antichymotrypsin (Serpin peptidase inhibitor, clade
G3V3A0; P01011



A (Alpha-1 antiproteinase, antitrypsin), member 3, isoform



CRA_a)


P04217
Alpha-1B-glycoprotein (Alpha-1-B glycoprotein)
P04217; P04217-2


P50995
Annexin A11 (56 kDa autoantigen) (Annexin XI)
P50995-2; P50995



(Annexin-11) (Calcyclin-associated annexin 50) (CAP-50)


P01008
Antithrombin-III (ATIII) (Serpin C1)
P01008


B3KNW1
AP-1 complex subunit gamma-1 (cDNA FLJ30560 fis,
B3KNW1; B3KXW5; J3KQU9;



clone BRAWH2004217, highly similar to AP-1 complex
O43747; O43747-2



subunit gamma-1)


P02647
Apolipoprotein A-I (Apo-AI) (ApoA-I) (Apolipoprotein A1)
P02647



[Cleaved into: Proapolipoprotein A-I (ProapoA-I);



Truncated apolipoprotein A-I (Apolipoprotein A-I(1-242))]


P02652
Apolipoprotein A-II (Apo-AII) (ApoA-II) (Apolipoprotein A2)
P02652; V9GYC1; V9GYG9;



[Cleaved into: Proapolipoprotein A-II (ProapoA-II);
V9GYM3; V9GYS1



Truncated apolipoprotein A-II (Apolipoprotein A-II(1-76))]


P06727
Apolipoprotein A-IV (Apo-AIV) (ApoA-IV) (Apolipoprotein
P06727



A4)


P04114
Apolipoprotein B-100 (Apo B-100) [Cleaved into:
P04114



Apolipoprotein B-48 (Apo B-48)]


B4DG16
Asparagine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic#
B4DG16; K7EIU7; K7EJ19;




K7EPK2; K7EQ35; O43776


P25705
ATP synthase subunit alpha, mitochondrial
P25705-3; P25705; P25705-2;




K7EK77; P25705-3; K7EQH4;




K7ERX7; P25705; P25705-2;




K7EJP1


C9JHK9
ATP-binding cassette sub-family F member 2
C9JHK9; C9JZV3; Q75MJ1;




Q9UG63


B4E3P0
ATP-citrate synthase (cD FLJ55447, highly similar to
B4E3P0; K7EIE7; P53396;



ATP-citrate synthase (EC 2.3.3.8))
P53396-2


O14497
AT-rich interactive domain-containing protein 1A (ARID
O14497; O14497-2



domain-containing protein 1A) (B120) (BRG1-associated



factor 250) (BAF250) (BRG1-associated factor 250a)



(BAF250A) (Osa homolog 1) (hOSA1) (SWI-like protein)



(SWI/SNF complex protein p270) (SWI/SNF-related,



matrix-associated, actin-dependent regulator of chromatin



subfamily F member 1) (hELD)


A2A296
BAG family molecular chaperone regulator 2
A2A296; B4DXE2; O95816


P02749
Beta-2-glycoprotein 1 (APC inhibitor) (Activated protein
J3QLI0; J3QRN2; P02748



C-binding protein) (Anticardiolipin cofactor) (Apolipoprotein



H) (Apo-H) (Beta-2-glycoprotein I) (B2GPI) (Beta(2)GPI)


P07814
Bifunctiol glutamate/proline--tR ligase (Bifunctiol
P07814



aminoacyl-tR synthetase) (Cell proliferation-inducing gene



32 protein) (Glutamatyl-prolyl-tR synthetase) [Includes:



Glutamate--tR ligase (EC 6.1.1.17) (Glutamyl-tR



synthetase) (GluRS); Proline--tR ligase (EC 6.1.1.15)



(Prolyl-tR synthetase)]


A6NJ33
Butyrophilin-like protein 9*
A6NJ33; B7Z4Y8; Q6UXG8;




Q6UXG8-2; Q6UXG8-3


D6R938
Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaM
D6R938; E9PBG7; E9PF82;



kinase) II delta, isoform CRA_e
H0Y9J2; Q13557; Q13557-10;



(Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II
Q13557-11; Q13557-12;



subunit delta)
Q13557-3; Q13557-4; Q13557-5;




Q13557-6; Q13557-8; Q13557-9


P27824
Calnexin (IP90) (Major histocompatibility complex class I
P27824-2; P27824



antigen-binding protein p88) (p90)


E7EU96
Casein kinase II subunit alpha
E7EU96; P68400; P68400-2;




Q8NEV1


B3KXW5
cDNA FLJ46199 fis, clone TESTI4007965, highly similar to
B3KXW5; J3KQU9; O43747;



AP-1 complex subunit gamma-1
O43747-2


B4DIZ2
cDNA FLJ57995, moderately similar to
B4DIZ2; D6RDM7; P61086;



Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2-25 kDa (EC 6.3.2.19)
P61086-3


P00450
Ceruloplasmin (EC 1.16.3.1) (Ferroxidase)
H7C5R1; P00450


M0R1L7
Charged multivesicular body protein 2a
M0R1L7; M0R1T5; O43633


F5H5N6
Clathrin heavy chain 2
F5H5N6; J3KR87; J3KS13;




J3KSQ2; P53675; P53675-2;




Q00610; Q00610-2


P09496
Clathrin light chain A (Lca)
P09496-2; P09496-5


E9PK25
Cofilin-1
P23528; Q9Y281; E9PK25;




E9PP50; E9PQB7; F6RFD5;




G3V1A4; P60981; P60981-2;




Q9Y281-3


P02452
Collagen alpha-1(I) chain (Alpha-1 type I collagen)
P02452


P08572
Collagen alpha-2(IV) chain [Cleaved into: Canstatin]
P08572


P01024
Complement C3 (C3 and PZP-like alpha-2-macroglobulin
M0QYC8; P01024



domain-containing protein 1) [Cleaved into: Complement



C3 beta chain; C3-beta-c (C3bc); Complement C3 alpha



chain; C3a anaphylatoxin; Acylation stimulating protein



(ASP) (C3adesArg); Complement C3b alpha′ chain;



Complement C3c alpha′ chain fragment 1; Complement



C3dg fragment; Complement C3g fragment; Complement



C3d fragment; Complement C3f fragment; Complement



C3c alpha′ chain fragment 2]


F5GXS0
Complement C4-B
F5GXS0; P0C0L4; P0C0L4-2;




P0C0L5


P07357
Complement component C8 alpha chain (Complement
P07357



component 8 subunit alpha)


P08603
Complement factor H (H factor 1)
P08603


B1AKG0
Complement factor H-related protein 1
B1AKG0; P08603; Q03591


H3BRY3
Coronin
H3BRY3; P31146


F8W872
Cyclin-dependent kise 10
F8W872; H3BT74; Q15131;




Q15131-2; Q15131-3; Q15131-4


O43175
D-3-phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase (3-PGDH) (EC
O43175; Q5SZU1



1.1.1.95)


B7WPD1
Doublecortin domain-containing protein 1*
B7WPD1; M0R2J8


E7EMD0
DPH--cytochrome P450 reductase
E7EMD0; E7EPN3; E7EVY7;




F5H468; H0Y4R2; P16435


P49792
E3 SUMO-protein ligase RanBP2 (EC 6.3.2.—) (358 kDa
P49792



nucleoporin) (Nuclear pore complex protein Nup358)



(Nucleoporin Nup358) (Ran-binding protein 2) (RanBP2)



(p270)


E9PK01
Elongation factor 1-delta
E9PK01; E9PQC9; E9PQZ1;




E9PRY8; H0YE58; H0YE72;




P29692; P29692-2; P29692-3;




P29692-4


P13639
Elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
P13639


E7EQG2
Eukaryotic initiation factor 4A-II
E7EQG2; J3KSN7; J3KT12;




J3KTB5; J3QL43; J3QLN6;




J3QR64; P60842; P60842-2;




Q14240; Q14240-2; J3KS25; J3QKZ9


P05198
Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit 1
P05198



(Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit alpha)



(eIF-2-alpha) (eIF-2A) (eIF-2alpha)


Q8IXL6
Extracellular serine/threonine protein kinase FAM20C (EC
Q8IXL6



2.7.11.1) (Dentin matrix protein 4) (DMP-4) (Golgi-enriched



fraction casein kinase) (GEF-CK) (Protein FAM20C)


Q01469
Fatty acid-binding protein, epidermal (Epidermal-type fatty
Q01469



acid-binding protein) (E-FABP) (Fatty acid-binding protein



5) (Psoriasis-associated fatty acid-binding protein



homolog) (PA-FABP)


G3V0F2
Ferredoxin reductase, isoform CRA_c (DPH: adrenodoxin
G3V0F2; J3QQX3; P22570;



oxidoreductase, mitochondrial)
P22570-2; P22570-3; P22570-4;




P22570-5; P22570-6; P22570-7


E9PPQ4
Ferritin
E9PPQ4; E9PRK8; G3V192;




G3V1D1; P02794


D6REL8
Fibrinogen beta chain
D6REL8; P02675


J3KTJ6
Gamma-soluble NSF attachment protein
J3KTJ6; Q99747


B7Z403
Glyoxalase domain-containing protein 4 (cD FLJ55095)
B7Z403; Q9HC38; Q9HC38-2


A8MTJ3
Guanine nucleotide-binding protein G(t) subunit alpha-3
A8MTJ3; P04899-5; P04899-6;



(Gustducin alpha-3 chain)
F5GZL8; P04899; P04899-2;




P04899-3; P04899-4; P08754;




P11488; P19087; P38405-3;




P63096; P63096-2


P00739
Haptoglobin-related protein
P00739; P00739-2


Q92598
Heat shock protein 105 kDa (Antigen NY-CO-25) (Heat
Q92598-4; Q92598; Q92598-2;



shock 110 kDa protein)
Q92598-3; R4GN69


I3L0K7
Heat shock protein 75 kDa, mitochondrial (TNF
Q12931-2; I3L0K7; I3L239;



receptor-associated protein 1, isoform CRA_b)
Q12931


P68871
Hemoglobin subunit beta (Beta-globin) (Hemoglobin beta
P68871



chain) [Cleaved into: LVV-hemorphin-7; Spinorphin]


P02790
Hemopexin (Beta-1B-glycoprotein)
P02790


P61978
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein K (hnRNP K)
P61978; P61978-2; P61978-3;



(Transformation up-regulated nuclear protein) (TUNP)
Q5T6W1; Q5T6W2; Q5T6W5


B4DT28
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein R
B4DT28; O43390; O43390-2;



(Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein R, isoform
O43390-3; S4R3J4



CRA_a) (cD FLJ54544, highly similar to Heterogeneous



nuclear ribonucleoprotein R)


P01861
Ig gamma-4 chain C region
P01861


P23083
Ig heavy chain V-I region V35
P23083


F8WAR6
Kinesin-like protein KIF3C
F8WAR6; F8WER6; O14782


Q04760
Lactoylglutathione lyase (EC 4.4.1.5) (Aldoketomutase)
Q04760; Q04760-2



(Glyoxalase I) (Glx I) (Ketone-aldehyde mutase)



(Methylglyoxalase) (S-D-lactoylglutathione methylglyoxal



lyase)


E9PBF6
Lamin-B1
E9PBF6; P20700


Q92615
La-related protein 4B (La ribonucleoprotein domain family
Q92615



member 4B) (La ribonucleoprotein domain family member



5) (La-related protein 5)


P51884
Lumican (Keratan sulfate proteoglycan lumican) (KSPG
P51884



lumican)


F8W6P5
LVV-hemorphin-7
F8W6P5; P68871


Q7Z7M0
Multiple epidermal growth factor-like domains protein 8
Q7Z7M0; Q7Z7M0-2



(Multiple EGF-like domains protein 8) (Epidermal growth



factor-like protein 4) (EGF-like protein 4)


B4DYH8
N-acetylglucosamine-6-sulfatase#
B4DYH8; F6S8M0; H0YFA9;




H7C3P4; P15586; F5H4C6


O43505
N-acetyllactosaminide
O43505



beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase (EC 2.4.1.149)



(I-beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase) (iGnT)



(Poly-N-acetyllactosamine extension enzyme)



(UDP-GlcNAc:betaGal



beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase 1)


Q96PD5
N-acetylmuramoyl-L-alanine amidase (EC 3.5.1.28)
Q96PD5; Q96PD5-2



(Peptidoglycan recognition protein 2) (Peptidoglycan



recognition protein long) (PGRP-L)


O00567
Nucleolar protein 56 (Nucleolar protein 5A)
O00567; Q5JXT2


H7BY16
Nucleolin
P19338; H7BY16


A8MXH2
Nucleosome assembly protein 1-like 4
A8MXH2; B3KNT8; B3KV44;




B7Z9C2; C9J6D1; C9JZI7;




E9PJJ2; E9PKT8; E9PNJ7; E9PNW0;




E9PS34; F5H4R6; F5HFY4;




F8VRJ2; F8VUX1; F8VV59;




F8VVB5; F8VXI6; F8VY35;




F8W020; F8W0J6; F8W118;




F8W543; H0YH88; H0YHC3; H0YIV4;




P55209; Q99733


B4E1F0
Plasma protease C1 inhibitor#
B4E1F0; B4E1H2; E9PGN7;




P05155


P00747
Plasminogen (EC 3.4.21.7) [Cleaved into: Plasmin heavy
P00747



chain A; Activation peptide; Angiostatin; Plasmin heavy



chain A, short form; Plasmin light chain B]


Q15149
Plectin (PCN) (PLTN) (Hemidesmosomal protein 1) (HD1)
Q15149; Q15149-2; Q15149-3;



(Plectin-1)
Q15149-4; Q15149-5; Q15149-6;




Q15149-7; Q15149-8; Q15149-9


O75051
Plexin-A2 (Semaphorin receptor OCT)
O75051


H0YAB0
Prelamin-A/C
H0YAB0; P02545; P02545-2;




P02545-3; P02545-4; P02545-5;




P02545-6; Q5TCI8


I3L1Q5
Pre-rRNA-processing protein TSR1 homolog
I3L1Q5; Q2NL82


H0Y7L7
Presequence protease, mitochondrial
H0Y7L7; Q5JRX3; Q5JRX3-2;




Q5JRX3-3


E9PIF2
Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX10
E9PIF2; Q13206


B4DLW8
Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX5#
B4DLW8; C9JMU5; H3BLZ8;




J3KRZ1; J3KTA4; J3QRQ7;




P17844; Q92841; Q92841-1;




Q92841-2; Q92841-3


Q7Z4N8
Prolyl 4-hydroxylase subunit alpha-3 (4-PH alpha-3) (EC
Q7Z4N8-3



1.14.11.2)



(Procollagen-proline, 2-oxoglutarate-4-dioxygenase subunit



alpha-3)


P02760
Protein AMBP [Cleaved into: Alpha-1-microglobulin
P02760; S4R471



(Protein HC) (Alpha-1 microglycoprotein)



(Complex-forming glycoprotein heterogeneous in charge);



Inter-alpha-trypsin inhibitor light chain (ITI-LC) (Bikunin)



(EDC1) (HI-30) (Uronic-acid-rich protein); Trypstatin]


K7ER74
Protein APOC4-APOC2
K7ER74; P02655; Q6P163


Q6ZSJ9
Protein shisa-6 homolog
Q6ZSJ9; Q6ZSJ9-2; Q6ZSJ9-3


Q9BVV6-3
Protein TALPID3
Q9BVV6-3


B7Z972
Protein-L-isoaspartate O-methyltransferase (EC 2.1.1.77)
B7Z972; H7BY58; P22061;




P22061-2


P59074
Putative charged multivesicular body protein 4B-like
Q9H444; P59074



protein CHMP4BP1 (Charged multivesicular body protein



4B pseudogene 1)


060361
Putative nucleoside diphosphate kinase (NDK) (NDP
O60361; P22392; P22392-2;



kinase) (EC 2.7.4.6)
Q32Q12


D6RHH8
Rap1 GTPase-GDP dissociation stimulator 1
D6RHZ7; P52306; P52306-2;




P52306-3; P52306-4; P52306-5;




P52306-6; D6RHH8


P46940
Ras GTPase-activating-like protein IQGAP1 (p195)
P46940


E7END7
Ras-related protein Rab-1A
E7END7; P62820


P62834
Ras-related protein Rap-1A (C21KG) (G-22K)
P62834



(GTP-binding protein smg p21A) (Ras-related protein



Krev-1)


E7ENU7
Ribosomal protein L15
E7ENU7; E7EQV9; E7EX53;




P61313; P61313-2


B3KQ59
RuvB-like 2#
B3KQ59; M0R0Y3; Q9Y230


F8VZQ9
SAP domain-containing ribonucleoprotein
F8VZQ9; H0YHG0; P82979;




Q567R9


B5MCX3
Septin-2
B5MCX3; H7C2Y0; Q15019;




Q15019-2; Q15019-3


J3KN47
Serotransferrin*
J3KN47; P02787


B7WNR0
Serum albumin
B7WNR0; C9JKR2; D6RHD5;




H0YA55; P02768; P02768-2


F5H4W9
Serum paraoxonase/arylesterase 1*
F5H4W9; P27169


F8WF42
Serum paraoxonase/arylesterase 1
F8WF42; P27169


B0FWH5
Sex hormone binding globulin (Sex hormone-binding
B0FWH5; B0FWH6; B0FWH7;



globulin)
B4DYU0; I3L0M1; I3L145;




I3L1C1; I3L1G4; I3L1J1; I3L2F1;




I3L2X4; I3L4B9; P04278; P04278-2;




P04278-3; P04278-4; P04278-5


G3V2B9
Short peptide from AAT
G3V2B9; P01009; P01009-2;




P01009-3


A6NKH4
Sorting nexin-1*
A6NKH4; H0YK42; Q13596;




Q13596-2; Q13596-3


Q15459
Splicing factor 3A subunit 1 (SF3a120)
Q15459-2; Q15459



(Spliceosome-associated protein 114) (SAP 114)


D6RFM5
Succinate dehydrogenase [ubiquinone] flavoprotein
D6RFM5; P31040-2; P31040;



subunit, mitochondrial
P31040-3


F5GXC8
Succinyl-CoA ligase [ADP-forming] subunit beta,
F5GXC8; Q5T9Q5; Q9P2R7;



mitochondrial*
Q9P2R7-2


Q5TCU6
Talin-1
Q9Y490; Q5TCU6; Q9Y4G6


B7ZAR1
T-complex protein 1 subunit epsilon (cDNA, FLJ79275,
P48643-2; B7ZAR1; E7ENZ3;



highly similar to T-complex protein 1 subunit epsilon)
E9PCA1; P48643


B4DUR8
T-complex protein 1 subunit gamma (cD FLJ57603, highly
B4DUR8; E9PRC8; P49368;



similar to T-complex protein 1 subunit gamma) (cD,
Q5SZX6; Q5SZX9



FLJ78822, highly similar to T-complex protein 1 subunit



gamma) (cD, FLJ79286, highly similar to T-complex



protein 1 subunit gamma)


E9PHK0
Tetranectin
E9PHK0; P05452


E7EQ72
Transmembrane emp24 domain-containing protein 2
E7EQ72; F5GX39; Q15363


K7EJI9
Truncated apolipoprotein C-I
K7EJI9; K7ELM9; K7EPF9;




K7ERI9; P02654; K7EKP1


G3V2J9
Tubulin polyglutamylase TTLL5
G3V2J9; Q6EMB2; Q6EMB2-3


Q9UIG0
Tyrosine-protein kinase BAZ1B (EC 2.7.10.2)
Q9UIG0; Q9UIG0-2



(Bromodomain adjacent to zinc finger domain protein 1B)



(Williams syndrome transcription factor) (Williams-Beuren



syndrome chromosomal region 10 protein)



(Williams-Beuren syndrome chromosomal region 9



protein) (hWALp2)


B4E1Z4
Uncharacterized protein (cDNA FLJ55673, highly similar to
B4E1Z4; E7ETN3; H7C5H1; P00751



Complement factor B (EC 3.4.21.47))


H0Y426
Valine--tRNA ligase
H0Y426; P26640


C9J8H1
V-type proton ATPase subunit E 1
C9J8H1; P36543; P36543-2; P36543-3


E9PB87
WAS/WASL-interacting protein family member 1
E9PB87; O43516; O43516-2;




O43516-3


Q06732
Zinc finger protein 33B (Zinc finger protein 11B) (Zinc
Q32M84; Q32M84-2; Q06732



finger protein KOX2)


C9JEV0
Zinc-alpha-2-glycoprotein
C9JEV0; P25311









Table 3 discloses proteins whose peptides were found to be down-regulated by at least 60% in the CSF of AD patients compared to CSF of non-AD subjects. Uniprot ID=annotated ID during data search; Protein names=protein name/s given to matched sequence; All Uniprot matches=All Uniprot IDs that match to the peptide sequence detected at the time of invention. Hash (#) indicates those proteins that were annotated as “merged with ###” and which have been re-searched in Uniprot. Asterisk (*) indicates those proteins which were annotated as deleted as the entry has been removed from Uniprot (due to redundancy).


In one embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, or at least two or more, optionally at least three or all biomarkers selected from the group of ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1, vitamin D binding protein Peroxiredoxin-1, MARCKS-related protein, Moesin, Actin, Protein TMSB4XP4, ApoE, Gelsolin, Secretogranin, Albumin and complement proteins, Apolipoprotein E, Secretogranin-1, Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 65 kDa regulatory subunit A alpha isoform, Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1, RuvB-like 1, cDNA FLJ54806, Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2, Ras-related protein Rab-13, Serum albumin and Pigment epithelium-derived factor or fragments thereof.


The biomarker panel may comprise phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, optionally two or more biomarkers selected from Table 1 and/or Table 2 and/or Table 3 and/or Table 4 or fragments thereof.











TABLE 4





Uniprot ID
Protein Name
All Uniprot matches







I3L0S5
76 kDa lysosomal alpha-glucosidase
I3L0S5; I3L3L3; P10253


P42684
Abelson tyrosine-protein kinase 2 (EC 2.7.10.2) (Abelson
P42684; P42684-10; P42684-2;



murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 2)
P42684-3; P42684-4; P42684-5; P42684-6;



(Abelson-related gene protein) (Tyrosine-protein kinase
P42684-7; P42684-8



ARG)


G5E951
ADAM metallopeptidase domain 22, isoform CRA_I
E7EPF1; F8WAD8; G5E951; Q9P0K1;



(Disintegrin and metalloproteinase domain-containing
Q9P0K1-2; Q9P0K1-3; Q9P0K1-4;



protein 22)
Q9P0K1-5


Q9UKB5
Adherens junction-associated protein 1 (Membrane
Q9UKB5



protein shrew-1)


Q12955
Ankyrin-3 (ANK-3) (Ankyrin-G)
Q12955; Q12955-4; Q12955-5


Q6P163
APOC2 protein (Apolipoprotein C-II)
P02655; K7ER74; Q6P163


P02654
Apolipoprotein C-I (Apolipoprotein C1) [Cleaved into:
K7EJI9; K7ELM9; K7EPF9; K7ERI9;



Truncated apolipoprotein C-I]
P02654


P02655
Apolipoprotein C-II (Apo-CII) (ApoC-II) (Apolipoprotein
P02655; K7ER74



C2)


P02656
Apolipoprotein C-III (Apo-CIII) (ApoC-III) (Apolipoprotein
P02656; B0YIW2



C3)


P17174
Aspartate aminotransferase, cytoplasmic (cAspAT) (EC
P17174; B7Z7E9



2.6.1.1) (EC 2.6.1.3) (Cysteine aminotransferase,



cytoplasmic) (Cysteine transaminase, cytoplasmic)



(cCAT) (Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase 1)



(Transaminase A)


P35613
Basigin (5F7) (Collagenase stimulatory factor)
P35613; P35613-2; P35613-3;



(Extracellular matrix metalloproteinase inducer)
P35613-4



(EMMPRIN) (Leukocyte activation antigen M6) (OK



blood group antigen) (Tumor cell-derived collagenase



stimulatory factor) (TCSF) (CD antigen CD147)


Q96JF0
Beta-galactoside alpha-2,6-sialyltransferase 2 (Alpha
Q96JF0; Q96JF0-2



2,6-ST 2) (EC 2.4.99.1)



(CMP-N-acetylneuraminate-beta-galactosamide-alpha-2,



6-sialyltransferase 2) (ST6Gal II) (ST6GalII) (hST6Gal II)



(Sialyltransferase 2)


H3BP20
Beta-hexosaminidase (EC 3.2.1.52)
E9PGL4; H3BP20; H3BS10; P06865


P06865
Beta-hexosaminidase subunit alpha (EC 3.2.1.52)
E9PGL4; H3BP20; H3BS10; P06865



(Beta-N-acetylhexosaminidase subunit alpha)



(Hexosaminidase subunit A)



(N-acetyl-beta-glucosaminidase subunit alpha)


A2A3C1
Brain-specific angiogenesis inhibitor 2
A2A3C1; A2A3C2; A2A3C3; A2A3C4;




A2A3C6; E9PND1; O60241; O60241-2;




O60241-3; O60241-4


Q32M84
BTB/POZ domain-containing protein 16
Q06732; Q32M84; Q32M84-2


Q9HCU4
Cadherin EGF LAG seven-pass G-type receptor 2
Q9HCU4



(Cadherin family member 10) (Epidermal growth



factor-like protein 2) (EGF-like protein 2) (Flamingo



homolog 3) (Multiple epidermal growth factor-like



domains protein 3) (Multiple EGF-like domains protein 3)


Q5SWX3
Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaM
Q9Y266; B7Z1Z6; D6R938; E9PBG7;



kinase) II gamma, isoform CRA_n
E9PF82; H0Y6G2; H0Y9C2; H0Y9J2;



(Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II
H7C394; Q13217; Q13554; Q13554-2;



subunit gamma)
Q13554-3; Q13554-4; Q13554-5;




Q13554-6; Q13554-7; Q13554-8; Q13555;




Q13555-10; Q13555-2; Q13555-3;




Q13555-4; Q13555-5; Q13555-6;




Q13555-7; Q13555-8; Q13555-9; Q13557;




Q13557-10; Q13557-11; Q13557-12;




Q13557-3; Q13557-4; Q13557-5;




Q13557-6; Q13557-8; Q13557-9;




Q5SWX3; Q8WU40; Q9UQM7; Q9UQM7-2


Q6P2M8
Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type 1B
Q6P2M8; Q6P2M8-2; Q6P2M8-3;



(EC 2.7.11.17) (CaM kinase I beta) (CaM kinase IB)
Q6P2M8-5; Q6P2M8-6



(CaM-KI beta) (CaMKI-beta) (Pregnancy up-regulated



non-ubiquitously-expressed CaM kinase)


Q9UQM7
Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II
Q9Y266; B7Z1Z6; D6R938; E9PBG7;



subunit alpha (CaM kinase II subunit alpha) (CaMK-II
E9PF82; H0Y6G2; H0Y9C2; H0Y9J2;



subunit alpha) (EC 2.7.11.17)
H7C394; Q13217; Q13554; Q13554-2;




Q13554-3; Q13554-4; Q13554-5;




Q13554-6; Q13554-7; Q13554-8; Q13555;




Q13555-10; Q13555-2; Q13555-3;




Q13555-4; Q13555-5; Q13555-6; Q13555-7;




Q13555-8; Q13555-9; Q13557;




Q13557-10; Q13557-11; Q13557-12;




Q13557-3; Q13557-4; Q13557-5;




Q13557-6; Q13557-8; Q13557-9; Q5SWX3;




Q8WU40; Q9UQM7; Q9UQM7-2


Q13554
Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II
Q9Y266; B7Z1Z6; D6R938; E9PBG7;



subunit beta (CaM kinase II subunit beta) (CaMK-II
E9PF82; H0Y6G2; H0Y9C2; H0Y9J2;



subunit beta) (EC 2.7.11.17)
H7C394; Q13217; Q13554; Q13554-2;




Q13554-3; Q13554-4; Q13554-5;




Q13554-6; Q13554-7; Q13554-8; Q13555;




Q13555-10; Q13555-2; Q13555-3;




Q13555-4; Q13555-5; Q13555-6;




Q13555-7; Q13555-8; Q13555-9; Q13557;




Q13557-10; Q13557-11; Q13557-12;




Q13557-3; Q13557-4; Q13557-5;




Q13557-6; Q13557-8; Q13557-9; Q5SWX3;




Q8WU40; Q9UQM7; Q9UQM7-2


Q13555
Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II
Q9Y266; B7Z1Z6; D6R938; E9PBG7;



subunit gamma (CaM kinase II subunit gamma) (CaMK-II
E9PF82; H0Y6G2; H0Y9C2; H0Y9J2;



subunit gamma) (EC 2.7.11.17)
H7C394; Q13217; Q13554; Q13554-2;




Q13554-3; Q13554-4; Q13554-5;




Q13554-6; Q13554-7; Q13554-8; Q13555;




Q13555-10; Q13555-2; Q13555-3;




Q13555-4; Q13555-5; Q13555-6;




Q13555-7; Q13555-8; Q13555-9; Q13557;




Q13557-10; Q13557-11; Q13557-12;




Q13557-3; Q13557-4; Q13557-5;




Q13557-6; Q13557-8; Q13557-9; Q5SWX3;




Q8WU40; Q9UQM7; Q9UQM7-2


Q9BQT9
Calsyntenin-3 (Alcadein-beta) (Alc-beta)
Q9BQT9; Q9BQT9-2


Q5T8F0
Cathepsin L1
P07711; Q5T8F0


P25774
Cathepsin S (EC 3.4.22.27)
P25774; P25774-2; U3KQE7


Q8N3J6
Cell adhesion molecule 2 (Immunoglobulin superfamily
Q8N3J6; Q8N3J6-2; Q8N3J6-3



member 4D) (IgSF4D) (Nectin-like protein 3) (NECL-3)



(Synaptic cell adhesion molecule 2) (SynCAM 2)


Q8N126
Cell adhesion molecule 3 (Brain immunoglobulin
Q8N126; Q8N126-2; Q8N126-3



receptor) (Immunoglobulin superfamily member 4B)



(IgSF4B) (Nectin-like protein 1) (NECL-1) (Synaptic cell



adhesion molecule 3) (SynCAM3) (TSLC1-like protein 1)



(TSLL1)


G3V2Y8
Cerebellin-3 (HCG40197)
G3V2Y8; Q6UW01


Q9NTU7
Cerebellin-4 (Cerebellin-like glycoprotein 1)
Q9NTU7


C9J0A7
Charged multivesicular body protein 2b
C9J0A7


P06307
Cholecystokinin (CCK) [Cleaved into: Cholecystokinin-58
P06307



(CCK58); Cholecystokinin-58 desnonopeptide



((1-49)-CCK58); Cholecystokinin-39 (CCK39);



Cholecystokinin-33 (CCK33); Cholecystokinin-25



(CCK25); Cholecystokinin-18 (CCK18);



Cholecystokinin-12 (CCK12); Cholecystokinin-8 (CCK8);



Cholecystokinin-7 (CCK7); Cholecystokinin-5 (CCK5)]


Q16568
Cocaine- and amphetamine-regulated transcript protein
Q16568



[Cleaved into: CART(1-39); CART(42-89)]


Q9BXJ4
Complement C1q tumor necrosis factor-related protein 3
E9PGA6; Q9BXJ4; Q9BXJ4-2;



(Collagenous repeat-containing sequence 26 kDa
Q9BXJ4-3



protein) (CORS26) (Secretory protein CORS26)


Q9C0A0
Contactin-associated protein-like 4 (Cell recognition
E9PDN6; F5H107; Q9C0A0; Q9C0A0-2



molecule Caspr4)


Q9UBP4
Dickkopf-related protein 3 (Dickkopf-3) (Dkk-3) (hDkk-3)
F6SYF8; Q9UBP4


Q9P0K1
Disintegrin and metalloproteinase domain-containing
E7EPF1; F8WAD8; G5E951; Q9P0K1;



protein 22 (ADAM 22) (Metalloproteinase-disintegrin
Q9P0K1-2; Q9P0K1-3; Q9P0K1-4;



ADAM22-3) (Metalloproteinase-like, disintegrin-like, and
Q9P0K1-5



cysteine-rich protein 2)


Q9UJA3
DNA helicase MCM8 (EC 3.6.4.12) (Minichromosome
Q9UJA3; Q9UJA3-2; Q9UJA3-3;



maintenance 8)
Q9UJA3-4


Q13217
DnaJ homolog subfamily C member 3 (Endoplasmic
Q9Y266; B7Z1Z6; D6R938; E9PBG7;



reticulum DNA J domain-containing protein 6)
E9PF82; H0Y6G2; H0Y9C2; H0Y9J2;



(ER-resident protein ERdj6) (ERdj6) (Interferon-induced,
H7C394; Q13217; Q13554; Q13554-2;



double-stranded RNA-activated protein kinase inhibitor)
Q13554-3; Q13554-4; Q13554-5;



(Protein kinase inhibitor of 58 kDa) (Protein kinase
Q13554-6; Q13554-7; Q13554-8; Q13555;



inhibitor p58)
Q13555-10; Q13555-2; Q13555-3;




Q13555-4; Q13555-5; Q13555-6;




Q13555-7; Q13555-8; Q13555-9; Q13557;




Q13557-10; Q13557-11; Q13557-12;




Q13557-3; Q13557-4; Q13557-5;




Q13557-6; Q13557-8; Q13557-9;




Q5SWX3; Q8WU40; Q9UQM7; Q9UQM7-2


Q9P225
Dynein heavy chain 2, axonemal (Axonemal beta dynein
P10645; Q9P225; Q9P225-2; Q9P225-3;



heavy chain 2) (Ciliary dynein heavy chain 2) (Dynein
O60741; Q9P1Z3; Q9UL51; Q9Y3Q4



heavy chain domain-containing protein 3)


J3KQG3
EPH receptor A10, isoform CRA_b (Ephrin type-A
F8VP57; F8W9W0; J3KQG3; P29322;



receptor 10)
P29322-2; P54756; P54756-2; P54756-3;




Q15375; Q15375-2; Q15375-3;




Q15375-4; Q15375-5; Q5JZY3; Q5JZY3-2;




Q5JZY3-3; B1AKC9; P29323; P29323-2;




P29323-3; Q6NVW1


Q6NVW1
EPHB2 protein (Ephrin type-B receptor 2)
F8VP57; F8W9W0; J3KQG3; P29322;




P29322-2; P54756; P54756-2; P54756-3;




Q15375; Q15375-2; Q15375-3;




Q15375-4; Q15375-5; Q5JZY3; Q5JZY3-2;




Q5JZY3-3; B1AKC9; P29323; P29323-2;




P29323-3; Q6NVW1


Q5JZY3
Ephrin type-A receptor 10 (EC 2.7.10.1)
F8VP57; F8W9W0; J3KQG3; P29322;




P29322-2; P54756; P54756-2; P54756-3;




Q15375; Q15375-2; Q15375-3;




Q15375-4; Q15375-5; Q5JZY3; Q5JZY3-2;




Q5JZY3-3; B1AKC9; P29323; P29323-2;




P29323-3; Q6NVW1


P54764
Ephrin type-A receptor 4 (EC 2.7.10.1) (EPH-like kinase
B7Z6Q8; E9PG71; P54764



8) (EK8) (hEK8) (Tyrosine-protein kinase TYRO1)



(Tyrosine-protein kinase receptor SEK)


P54756
Ephrin type-A receptor 5 (EC 2.7.10.1) (Brain-specific
F8VP57; F8W9W0; J3KQG3; P29322;



kinase) (EPH homology kinase 1) (EHK-1) (EPH-like
P29322-2; P54756; P54756-2; P54756-3;



kinase 7) (EK7) (hEK7)
Q15375; Q15375-2; Q15375-3;




Q15375-4; Q15375-5; Q5JZY3; Q5JZY3-2;




Q5JZY3-3; B1AKC9; P29323; P29323-2;




P29323-3; Q6NVW1


Q15375
Ephrin type-A receptor 7 (EC 2.7.10.1) (EPH homology
Q15375; Q15375-2; Q15375-4; Q15375-5



kinase 3) (EHK-3) (EPH-like kinase 11) (EK11) (hEK11)


P29322
Ephrin type-A receptor 8 (EC 2.7.10.1) (EPH- and
F8VP57; F8W9W0; J3KQG3; P29322;



ELK-related kinase) (EPH-like kinase 3) (EK3) (hEK3)
P29322-2; P54756; P54756-2; P54756-3;



(Tyrosine-protein kinase receptor EEK)
Q15375; Q15375-2; Q15375-3;




Q15375-4; Q15375-5; Q5JZY3; Q5JZY3-2;




Q5JZY3-3; B1AKC9; P29323; P29323-2;




P29323-3; Q6NVW1


P29323
Ephrin type-B receptor 2 (EC 2.7.10.1)
F8VP57; F8W9W0; J3KQG3; P29322;



(Developmentally-regulated Eph-related tyrosine kinase)
P29322-2; P54756; P54756-2; P54756-3;



(ELK-related tyrosine kinase) (EPH tyrosine kinase 3)
Q15375; Q15375-2; Q15375-3;



(EPH-like kinase 5) (EK5) (hEK5) (Renal carcinoma
Q15375-4; Q15375-5; Q5JZY3; Q5JZY3-2;



antigen NY-REN-47) (Tyrosine-protein kinase TYROS)
Q5JZY3-3; B1AKC9; P29323; P29323-2;



(Tyrosine-protein kinase receptor EPH-3)
P29323-3; Q6NVW1


P52797
Ephrin-A3 (EFL-2) (EHK1 ligand) (EHK1-L) (EPH-related
B4DXG7; P52797



receptor tyrosine kinase ligand 3) (LERK-3)


B4DXG7
Ephrin-A3 (Uncharacterized protein) (cDNA FLJ57652,
B4DXG7; P52797



highly similar to Ephrin-A3)


P52799
Ephrin-B2 (EPH-related receptor tyrosine kinase ligand
P52799



5) (LERK-5) (HTK ligand) (HTK-L)


Q9UBQ6
Exostosin-like 2 (EC 2.4.1.223)
C9JEG3; F5GZK1; Q9UBQ6



(Alpha-1,4-N-acetylhexosaminyltransferase EXTL2)



(Alpha-GalNAcT EXTL2) (EXT-related protein 2)



(Glucuronyl-galactosyl-proteoglycan



4-alpha-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase) [Cleaved into:



Processed exostosin-like 2]


J3KNT4
Fibroblast growth factor receptor (EC 2.7.10.1)
E7EU09; J3KNT4; P11362; P11362-10;




P11362-11; P11362-12; P11362-13;




P11362-14; P11362-16; P11362-18;




P11362-19; P11362-2; P11362-20;




P11362-21; P11362-3; P11362-4;




P11362-5; P11362-6; P11362-7; P11362-8;




P11362-9; E9PNM3; E9PKF2; E9PKV7;




E9PN14


P11362
Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (FGFR-1) (EC
E7EU09; J3KNT4; P11362; P11362-10;



2.7.10.1) (Basic fibroblast growth factor receptor 1)
P11362-11; P11362-12; P11362-13;



(BFGFR) (bFGF-R-1) (Fms-like tyrosine kinase 2)
P11362-14; P11362-16; P11362-18;



(FLT-2) (N-sam) (Proto-oncogene c-Fgr) (CD antigen
P11362-19; P11362-2; P11362-20;



CD331)
P11362-21; P11362-3; P11362-4;




P11362-5; P11362-6; P11362-7; P11362-8;




P11362-9; E9PNM3; E9PKF2; E9PKV7;




E9PN14


Q6MZW2
Follistatin-related protein 4 (Follistatin-like protein 4)
Q6MZW2; Q6MZW2-3


O00451
GDNF family receptor alpha-2 (GDNF receptor alpha-2)
E5RGR6; O00451; O00451-2; O00451-3



(GDNFR-alpha-2) (GFR-alpha-2) (GDNF receptor beta)



(GDNFR-beta) (Neurturin receptor alpha)



(NRTNR-alpha) (NTNR-alpha) (RET ligand 2)



(TGF-beta-related neurotrophic factor receptor 2)


P14314
Glucosidase 2 subunit beta (80K-H protein) (Glucosidase
K7ELL7; P14314; P14314-2



II subunit beta) (Protein kinase C substrate 60.1 kDa



protein heavy chain) (PKCSH)


Q16769
Glutaminyl-peptide cyclotransferase (EC 2.3.2.5)
Q16769



(Glutaminyl cyclase) (QC) (sQC) (Glutaminyl-tRNA



cyclotransferase) (Glutamyl cyclase) (EC)


B4DK85
Glutaryl-CoA dehydrogenase, mitochondrial (cDNA
B4DK85; K7ESA6; Q92947; Q92947-2;



FLJ59559, highly similar to Glutaryl-CoA
P13521



dehydrogenase, mitochondrial (EC 1.3.99.7))


Q5VW52
Glycerol-3-phosphate acyltransferase 1, mitochondrial
Q5VW52; Q9HCL2



(Glycerol-3-phosphate acyltransferase, mitochondrial,



isoform CRA_a)


O60812
Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein C-like 1
O60812



(hnRNP C-like-1) (hnRNP core protein C-like 1)


P04233
HLA class II histocompatibility antigen gamma chain
H0YBZ2; P04233



(HLA-DR antigens-associated invariant chain) (Ia



antigen-associated invariant chain) (Ii) (p33) (CD antigen



CD74)


Q86YZ3
Hornerin
Q86YZ3


Q9Y4L1
Hypoxia up-regulated protein 1 (150 kDa
E9PL22; Q9Y4L1



oxygen-regulated protein) (ORP-150) (170 kDa



glucose-regulated protein) (GRP-170)


P22304
Iduronate 2-sulfatase (EC 3.1.6.13) (Alpha-L-iduronate
P22304; P22304-2; P22304-3



sulfate sulfatase) (Idursulfase) [Cleaved into: Iduronate



2-sulfatase 42 kDa chain; Iduronate 2-sulfatase 14 kDa



chain]


P04433
Ig kappa chain V-III region VG
P04433


P06316
Ig lambda chain V-I region BL2
P01702; P06316


P01702
Ig lambda chain V-I region NIG-64
P01702; P06316


P04220
Ig mu heavy chain disease protein (BOT)
P04220


B9A064
Immunoglobulin lambda-like polypeptide 5 (G lambda-1)
B9A064; P0CG05



(Germline immunoglobulin lambda 1)


Q15111
Inactive phospholipase C-like protein 1 (PLC-L1)
H3BUD4; Q15111; Q15111-2



(Phospholipase C-deleted in lung carcinoma)



(Phospholipase C-related but catalytically inactive



protein) (PRIP)


Q9UMF0
Intercellular adhesion molecule 5 (ICAM-5)
Q9UMF0



(Telencephalin)


P01579
Interferon gamma (IFN-gamma) (Immune interferon)
P01579; P14618; P14618-2


Q9NS87
Kinesin-like protein KIF15 (Kinesin-like protein 2)
C9JKA9; Q9NS87; Q9NS87-2;



(hKLP2) (Kinesin-like protein 7) (Serologically defined
Q9NS87-3; Q9NS87-4



breast cancer antigen NY-BR-62)


P24043
Laminin subunit alpha-2 (Laminin M chain) (Laminin-12
P24043



subunit alpha) (Laminin-2 subunit alpha) (Laminin-4



subunit alpha) (Merosin heavy chain)


Q8N2S1
Latent-transforming growth factor beta-binding protein 4
E7EUU1; Q8N2S1-2; Q8N2S1;



(LTBP-4)
E7ENG9; F5GXC9; M0QZX0; Q8N2S1-3


O94910
Latrophilin-1 (Calcium-independent alpha-latrotoxin
O94910; O94910-2



receptor 1) (CIRL-1) (Lectomedin-2)


P07195
L-lactate dehydrogenase B chain (LDH-B) (EC 1.1.1.27)
P07195



(LDH heart subunit) (LDH-H) (Renal carcinoma antigen



NY-REN-46)


P10253
Lysosomal alpha-glucosidase (EC 3.2.1.20) (Acid
I3L0S5; I3L3L3; P10253



maltase) (Aglucosidase alfa) [Cleaved into: 76 kDa



lysosomal alpha-glucosidase; 70 kDa lysosomal



alpha-glucosidase]


E9PGC8
MAP1 light chain LC2
E9PGC8; J3KPX8; P78559; P78559-2


Q8TBP5
Membrane protein FAM174A (Hepatitis C virus
Q8TBP5



NS5A-transactivated protein 6) (HCV



NS5A-transactivated protein 6) (Transmembrane protein



157)


P04731
Metallothionein-1A (MT-1A) (Metallothionein-IA) (MT-IA)
H3BSF1; P02795; P04731; P13640;




P13640-2; P80294; P80297


H3BSF1
Metallothionein-1G
H3BSF1; P02795; P04731; P13640;




P13640-2; P80294; P80297


P80294
Metallothionein-1H (MT-1H) (Metallothionein-0) (MT-0)
H3BSF1; P02795; P04731; P13640;



(Metallothionein-IH) (MT-IH)
P13640-2; P80294; P80297


P78559
Microtubule-associated protein 1A (MAP-1A)
E9PGC8; J3KPX8; P78559; P78559-2



(Proliferation-related protein p80) [Cleaved into: MAP1A



heavy chain; MAP1 light chain LC2]


H0Y786
Nebulin
P20929; F8WCL5; F8WCP0; H0Y786;




J3QK84


Q9NQX5
Neural proliferation differentiation and control protein 1
Q5SPY9; Q9NQX5



(NPDC-1)


O14594
Neurocan core protein (Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan
O14594



3)


Q9BYT8
Neurolysin, mitochondrial (EC 3.4.24.16)
E9PCB6; H0YAK4; Q9BYT8



(Angiotensin-binding protein) (Microsomal



endopeptidase) (MEP) (Mitochondrial oligopeptidase M)



(Neurotensin endopeptidase)


P17677
Neuromodulin (Axonal membrane protein GAP-43)
P17677; P17677-2



(Growth-associated protein 43) (Neural phosphoprotein



B-50) (pp46)


P47972
Neuronal pentraxin-2 (NP2) (Neuronal pentraxin II)
P47972



(NP-II)


Q99574
Neuroserpin (Peptidase inhibitor 12) (PI-12) (Serpin I1)
Q99574; C9JDY5; C9JQU9


P14543
Nidogen-1 (NID-1) (Entactin)
P14543; P14543-2


Q7Z6G3
N-terminal EF-hand calcium-binding protein 2 (EF-hand
H3BPH6; H3BTW2; Q7Z6G3



calcium-binding protein 2) (Neuronal calcium-binding



protein 2) (Synaptotagmin-interacting protein 2) (Stip-2)


Q5VST9
Obscurin (EC 2.7.11.1) (Obscurin-RhoGEF)
P01009; A6NGQ3; F8W8T3; H3BPX2;



(Obscurin-myosin light chain kinase) (Obscurin-MLCK)
H3BQA7; H7BY31; Q5VST9; Q5VST9-2;




Q5VST9-3; Q5VST9-5; Q5VST9-6


Q96CV9
Optineurin (E3-14.7K-interacting protein) (FIP-2)
P06727; Q96CV9; Q96CV9-2; Q96CV9-3



(Huntingtin yeast partner L) (Huntingtin-interacting



protein 7) (HIP-7) (Huntingtin-interacting protein L)



(NEMO-related protein) (Optic neuropathy-inducing



protein) (Transcription factor IIIA-interacting protein)



(TFIIIA-IntP)


G5E956
Outer dense fiber of sperm tails 2-like, isoform CRA_a
G5E956; H0YD68; Q9ULJ1; Q9ULJ1-2;



(Outer dense fiber protein 2-like)
Q9ULJ1-3; Q9ULJ1-4; Q9ULJ1-5;




Q9ULJ1-6


H0YD68
Outer dense fiber protein 2-like
G5E956; H0YD68; Q9ULJ1; Q9ULJ1-2;




Q9ULJ1-3; Q9ULJ1-4; Q9ULJ1-5;




Q9ULJ1-6


H3BUD4
Phosphoinositide phospholipase C (EC 3.1.4.11)
H3BUD4; Q15111; Q15111-2


Q8IV08
Phospholipase D3 (PLD 3) (EC 3.1.4.4) (Choline
E2QRG1; M0R1F7; M0R2W7; Q8IV08



phosphatase 3) (HindIII K4L homolog) (Hu-K4)



(Phosphatidylcholine-hydrolyzing phospholipase D3)


Q9BTY2
Plasma alpha-L-fucosidase (EC 3.2.1.51)
Q9BTY2



(Alpha-L-fucoside fucohydrolase 2) (Alpha-L-fucosidase



2)


O60741
Potassium/sodium hyperpolarization-activated cyclic
P10645; Q9P225; Q9P225-2; Q9P225-3;



nucleotide-gated channel 1 (Brain cyclic
O60741; Q9P1Z3; Q9UL51; Q9Y3Q4



nucleotide-gated channel 1) (BCNG-1)


Q9UL51
Potassium/sodium hyperpolarization-activated cyclic
P10645; Q9P225; Q9P225-2; Q9P225-3;



nucleotide-gated channel 2 (Brain cyclic
O60741; Q9P1Z3; Q9UL51; Q9Y3Q4



nucleotide-gated channel 2) (BCNG-2)


Q9P1Z3
Potassium/sodium hyperpolarization-activated cyclic
P10645; Q9P225; Q9P225-2; Q9P225-3;



nucleotide-gated channel 3
O60741; Q9P1Z3; Q9UL51; Q9Y3Q4


Q9Y3Q4
Potassium/sodium hyperpolarization-activated cyclic
P10645; Q9P225; Q9P225-2; Q9P225-3;



nucleotide-gated channel 4
O60741; Q9P1Z3; Q9UL51; Q9Y3Q4


E7EQY3
Pregnancy-specific beta-1-glycoprotein 5
E7EQY3; P11464-4


A4D1T9
Probable inactive serine protease 37 (Probable inactive
A4D1T9



trypsin-X2)


P09668
Pro-cathepsin H [Cleaved into: Cathepsin H mini chain;
P09668



Cathepsin H (EC 3.4.22.16); Cathepsin H heavy chain;



Cathepsin H light chain]


F5GZK1
Processed exostosin-like 2
C9JEG3; F5GZK1; Q9UBQ6


P51888
Prolargin (Proline-arginine-rich end leucine-rich repeat
P51888



protein)


Q5FWE3
Proline-rich transmembrane protein 3
Q5FWE3; Q5FWE3-3


P01303
Pro-neuropeptide Y [Cleaved into: Neuropeptide Y
P01303



(Neuropeptide tyrosine) (NPY); C-flanking peptide of



NPY (CPON)]


P48745
Protein NOV homolog (NovH) (CCN family member 3)
P48745



(Insulin-like growth factor-binding protein 9) (IBP-9)



(IGF-binding protein 9) (IGFBP-9)



(Nephroblastoma-overexpressed gene protein homolog)


G3XAD5
Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, D, isoform
F5GWR7; F5GWT7; F5GWY7; G3XAD5;



CRA_c (Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase
G3XAE2; P23468; P23468-2; P23468-3;



delta)
P23468-4; P23468-5; P23468-6


G3XAE2
Protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type, D, isoform
F5GWR7; F5GWT7; F5GWY7; G3XAD5;



CRA_f (Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase
G3XAE2; P23468; P23468-2; P23468-3;



delta)
P23468-4; P23468-5; P23468-6


F5GWR7
Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase delta
F5GWR7; F5GWT7; F5GWY7; G3XAD5;




G3XAE2; P23468; P23468-2; P23468-3;




P23468-4; P23468-5; P23468-6


P23470
Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase gamma
P23470; P23470-2



(Protein-tyrosine phosphatase gamma) (R-PTP-gamma)



(EC 3.1.3.48)


Q92932
Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase N2
E7EM83; Q92932; Q92932-2; Q92932-3;



(R-PTP-N2) (EC 3.1.3.48) (Islet cell autoantigen-related
Q92932-4



protein) (IAR) (ICAAR) (Phogrin)


Q96B86
Repulsive guidance molecule A (RGM domain family
F5GZU6; F5H7G2; G3V518; Q96B86;



member A)
Q96B86-2


G3V1D7
Reticulon 4 receptor-like 2, isoform CRA_a (Reticulon-4
G3V1D7; Q86UN3; Q86UN3-2



receptor-like 2)


Q9BZR6
Reticulon-4 receptor (Nogo receptor) (NgR) (Nogo-66
H7C0V4; H7C215; Q9BZR6



receptor)


Q6P5S7
Ribonuclease kappa (RNase K) (RNase kappa) (EC
F8W1G5; H0YHM1; H0YIM4; H0YIU3;



3.1.—.—)
I3L285; Q6P5S7


Q99985
Semaphorin-3C (Semaphorin-E) (Sema E)
F5H1Z7; Q99985


Q6P3R8
Serine/threonine-protein kinase Nek5 (EC 2.7.11.1)
E9PIX7; Q6P3R8



(Never in mitosis A-related kinase 5) (NimA-related



protein kinase 5)


E9PQD6
Serum amyloid A protein
E9PQD6; E9PR14; G3V1D9; P0DJI8;




P0DJI9; P0DJI9-2


P0DJI8
Serum amyloid A-1 protein (SAA) [Cleaved into: Amyloid
E9PQD6; E9PR14; G3V1D9; P0DJI8;



protein A (Amyloid fibril protein AA); Serum amyloid
P0DJI9; P0DJI9-2



protein A(2-104); Serum amyloid protein A(3-104);



Serum amyloid protein A(2-103); Serum amyloid protein



A(2-102); Serum amyloid protein A(4-101)]


P0DJI9
Serum amyloid A-2 protein (SAA2)
E9PQD6; E9PR14; G3V1D9; P0DJI8;




P0DJI9; P0DJI9-2


Q5TFQ8
Signal-regulatory protein beta-1 isoform 3 (SIRP-beta-1
P78324; P78324-2; P78324-4; Q5TFQ8



isoform 3)


Q8VWQ1
Soluble calcium-activated nucleotidase 1 (SCAN-1) (EC
K7EN15; Q8VWQ1; Q8VWQ1-2



3.6.1.6) (Apyrase homolog) (Putative MAPK-activating



protein PM09) (Putative NF-kappa-B-activating protein



107)


A8MXT8
Sulfhydryl oxidase 1
O00391; O00391-2; A8MXT8


H7C2K7
Sushi domain-containing protein 5
H7C2K7; O60279


Q92752
Tenascin-R (TN-R) (Janusin) (Restrictin)
Q92752; Q92752-2


D6RAM7
Testican-1
D6RAM7; Q08629


Q03167
Transforming growth factor beta receptor type 3
E9PKY4; Q03167; Q03167-2



(TGF-beta receptor type 3) (TGFR-3) (Betaglycan)



(Transforming growth factor beta receptor III) (TGF-beta



receptor type III)


Q3YBM2
Transmembrane protein 176B (Protein LR8)
Q3YBM2; Q3YBM2-2


O95407
Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 6B
Q06481; O95407; Q06481-3; Q06481-6



(Decoy receptor 3) (DcR3) (Decoy receptor for Fas



ligand) (M68)


P30530
Tyrosine-protein kinase receptor UFO (EC 2.7.10.1)
P30530; P30530-2



(AXL oncogene)


F5H7E1
Uncharacterized protein
P19827; F5H7E1


E9PGA6
Uncharacterized protein
E9PGA6; Q9BXJ4; Q9BXJ4-2; Q9BXJ4-3


M0QY22
Uncharacterized protein
M0QY22


C9JPP7
Uncharacterized protein C1orf87
C9JPP7; Q8N0U7; Q8N0U7-2; Q8N0U7-3


Q13459
Unconventional myosin-IXb (Unconventional myosin-9b)
M0R0P8; M0R300; Q13459; Q13459-2


E9PAT2
UPF0606 protein KIAA1549L
E9PAT2; H0YDE5; Q6ZVL6; Q6ZVL6-2


Q6EMK4
Vasorin (Protein slit-like 2)
Q6EMK4


Q9UPU3
VPS10 domain-containing receptor SorCS3
Q9UPU3


Q9HC57
WAP four-disulfide core domain protein 1 (Prostate
Q9HC57



stromal protein ps20) (ps20 growth inhibitor)


Q86Y38
Xylosyltransferase 1 (EC 2.4.2.26) (Peptide
Q86Y38



O-xylosyltransferase 1) (Xylosyltransferase I) (XT-I)



(XylT-I)


F8VRY0
Zinc finger protein 385A
F8VRY0; F8VSJ1; F8VVW6; F8VY43;




Q96PM9-1; Q96PM9-2









Table 4 discloses proteins whose peptides were found to be regulated by at least 60% in the CSF of AD patients compared to non-AD CSF when compared in a proteomics study without calibrator. Significance is not considered here. Same 6 CSF samples as in all calibrator studies. Column 1=annotated ID during data search. Middle column=protein name/s given to matched sequence. Final column=All Uniprot IDs that match to the peptide sequence detected at time of invention.


The biomarker panel may comprise phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and at least one, optionally two or more biomarkers selected from Table 1 and/or Table 2 and/or Table 3 and/or Table 4 and/or Table 2 or fragments thereof.


The biomarkers disclosed herein may be upregulated in the CSF of AD patients versus control like dynactin subunit-1 or may be down-regulated in the CSF patients versus control like cofilin-1.


Accordingly, in one embodiment the biomarker panel comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof; and cofilin-1 or a fragment thereof (e.g. a fragment having SEQ ID NO: 38) and/or dynactin subunit 1 or a fragment thereof (e.g. a fragment having SEQ ID NO: 37).


Optionally, the biomarker panel may also comprise at least one, or at least two or more, optionally at least three or all biomarkers selected from the group of ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1, vitamin D binding protein Peroxiredoxin-1, MARCKS-related protein, Moesin, Actin, Protein TMSB4XP4, ApoE, Gelsolin, Secretogranin, Albumin and complement proteins, Apolipoprotein E, Secretogranin-1, Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 65 kDa regulatory subunit A alpha isoform, Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1, RuvB-like 1, cDNA FLJ54806, Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2, Ras-related protein Rab-13, Serum albumin and Pigment epithelium-derived factor or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of the invention, the biomarker panel may comprise phospholucomutase 1 having or comprising SEQ ID NOs: 1, 6-13 and thymosin beta-4 having or comprising SEQ ID NOs: 2, 14-16 and optionally Vitamin D-binding protein having or comprising SEQ ID NOs: 5 and 18 and/or Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase isozyme L1 having or comprising SEQ ID NOs: 4 or 17, or fragments thereof, preferably the panel further comprises at least one or more of the following biomarkers, or fragments thereof, dynactin subunit 1 having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 37 or SEQ ID NO: 57, cofilin 1 having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 38 or SEQ ID NO:58), Apolipoprotein E having or comprising SEQ ID NO:19; SEQ ID NO:39 or amino acids 19 to 317 of SEQ ID NO:39, Secretogranin-1 having or comprising SEQ ID NO:20; SEQ ID NO:40; or amino acids 21 to 677, 440 to 513 or 617 to 673 of SEQ ID NO:40, Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 65 kDa regulatory subunit A alpha isoform having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 21 or SEQ ID NO: 41, Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1 having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 22; SEQ ID NO: 42 or amino acids 2 to 4646 of SEQ ID NO:42, RuvB-like 1 having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 23 or SEQ ID NO:43), cDNA FLJ54806 having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 24 or SEQ ID NO:44, Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2 having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 25; SEQ ID NO: 45 or amino acids 19 to 201 of SEQ ID NO:45, Ras-related protein Rab-13 having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 26 or SEQ ID NO:46, Serum albumin having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 27; SEQ ID NO: 47 or amino acids 19 to 22 or 25 to 609 of SEQ ID NO: 47, Pigment epithelium-derived factor having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 28; SEQ ID NO: 48 or amino acids 20 to 418 of SEQ ID NO: 48), Serum amyloid A-4 protein having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 29; SEQ ID NO: 49 or amino acids 19 to 130 of SEQ ID NO: 49, apolipoprotein A-I and its truncated version having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 30; SEQ ID NO: 50 or amino acids 19 to 267, 1 to 242, 25 to 267 or 25 to 266 of SEQ ID NO: 50, Fibrinogen alpha chain having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 31; SEQ ID NO: 51 or amino acids 20 to 35 or 36 to 866 of SEQ ID NO: 51, Haptoglobin having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 32; SEQ ID NO: 52 or amino acids 19 to 406, 19 to 160 or 162 to 406 of SEQ ID NO: 52, Alpha-1-antitrypsin having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 33; SEQ ID NO: 53 or amino acids 25 to 418 or 375 to 418 of SEQ ID NO: 53), Ig mu chain C region (SEQ ID NO: 34 or SEQ ID NO: 54, Hemoglobin subunit delta having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 35 or SEQ ID NO: 55, IgGFc-binding protein having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 36; SEQ ID NO: 56 or amino acids 24 to 5405 of SEQ ID NO: 56, or MARCKS-related protein having or comprising SEQ ID NO: 59.


For a list of the sequences used herein, Table 5 below shows the sequence correlation list.










TABLE 5






SEQ


Biomarker name
ID NO:
















Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) (Uniprot P36871)
1


Thymosin Beta-4 (human) (Uniprot P62328)
2


Isoform 2 of Phosphoglucomutase 1
3


Ubiquitin carboxy-terinal hydrolase L1 (D6R956)
4


Vitamin D binding protein (D6RBJ7)
5


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 1
6


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 2
7


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 3
8


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 4
9


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 5
10


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 6
11


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 7
12


Phosphoglucomutase 1 (human) - peptide 8
13


Thymosin Beta-4 (human) - peptide 1
14


Thymosin Beta-4 (human) - peptide 2
15


Thymosin Beta-4 (human) - peptide 3
16


Ubiquitin carboxy-terinal hydrolase L1 - peptide 1
17


Vitamin D binding protein - peptide 1
18


Apolipoprotein E - peptide 1
19


Secretogranin 1 - peptide 1
20


Serine/threonine protein phosphate 2A 65 KDa regulatory
21


subunit A alpha isoform - peptide 1


Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1 - peptide 1
22


RuvB-like 1 - peptide 1
23


cDNA FLJ54806
24


Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2 - peptide 1
25


Ras-related protein Rab13 - peptide 1
26


Serum Albumin
27


Pigment epithelium-derived factor - peptide 1
28


Serum Amyloid A-4 protein - peptide 1
29


Truncated apolipoprotein A-I - peptide 1
30


Fibrinogen alpha chain - peptide 1
31


Haptoglobin - peptide 1
32


Alpha-1-antytrypsin - peptide 1
33


Ig mu chain C region - peptide 1
34


Hemoglobin subunit delta - peptide 1
35


IgGFc-binding protein - peptide 1
36


Dynactin Subunit 1 - peptide 1
37


Cofilin-1 - peptide 1
38


Apolipoprotein E (P02649)
39


Secretogranin 1 (P05060)
40


Serine/threonine protein phosphate 2A 65 KDa regulatory
41


subunit A alpha isoform (P30153)


Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1 (Q14204)
42


RuvB-like 1 (Q9Y265, H7C4G5, E7ETR0, H7C4I3, J3QLR1,
43


B5BUB1)


cDNA FLJ54806 (MGEA5), mRNA (B4DYV7)
44


Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2 (P19652)
45


Ras-related protein Rab13 (P51153)
46


Serum Albumin (P02768, Q16167, H0YA55, B7WNR0,
47


D6RHD5, H7C013, Q56G89, D6RCE7, Q6LEH2)


Pigment epithelium-derived factor (P36955)
48


Serum Amyloid A-4 protein (P35542)
49


Truncated apolipoprotein A-I (P02647)
50


Fibrinogen alpha chain (P02671)
51


Haptoglobin (P00738, J3QLC9, H0Y300, H3BS21, J3QR68,
52


J3KRH2, J3QQI8, H3BMJ7, J3KSV1, Q14552)


Alpha-1-antytrypsin (P01009, G3V2B9, G3V5R8, G3V544,
53


G3V387, G3V4I7, Q13747, A7L8C5, A7L8C6)


Ig mu chain C region (P01871)
54


Hemoglobin subunit delta (P02042, E9PEW8, E9PFT6,
55


C9JRG0)


IgGFc-binding protein (Q9Y6R7)
56


Dynactin Subunit 1 (Q14203)
57


Cofilin-1 (P23528)
58


MARCKS-related protein (P49006)
59









The biomarker panels described herein are useful for diagnosing, for staging and for assessing the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder, in particular Alzheimer's disease. The use of the biomarker panels according to the present invention in any of such methods has considerable advantages. Firstly, these biomarker panels translate events and changes in pathways that occur in the brain into a peripheral signal, they allow replacing tissue testing with a peripheral fluid testing. This represents a great advantage especially as the tissue primarily affected in neurocognitive disorder is the brain tissue. Brain biopsies are not carried out and the only tissue analysis carried out is post-mortem. Secondly, these biomarker panels have been developed as capable to translate early events and changes in pathways in the brain, such as neuroinflammatory events, which are believed to be the hallway of neurocognitive disorders characterized by microglia activation, such as Alzheimer's disease. Thirdly, these biomarker panels encompass biomarkers which are not those typically reported in the literature or currently used in the clinical setting, thus lending to clinician additional tools for identifying and distinguish, at an early stage, subjects who have AD and subjects who, despite presenting symptoms of neurocognitive impairment are not affect by the early signs of AD.


Hence, the present invention provides for a method for diagnosing a neurocognitive disorder in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of a biomarker panel;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has a neurocognitive disorder by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers; wherein the biomarker panel comprises:
      • i. phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or
      • ii. thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof.


The present invention also provides for a method for staging a neurocognitive disorder in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of a biomarker panel;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining the stage of the neurocognitive disorder in said subject by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers, wherein the biomarker panel comprises:
      • i. phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or
      • ii. thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof.


The present invention also provides for a method for assessing in a subject the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of a biomarker panel;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject is likely to develop a neurocognitive disorder by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers wherein the biomarker panel comprises:
      • i. phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or
      • ii. thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof.


In some embodiments, the biomarker panel for use in the method for diagnosing, staging or assessing in a subject the likelihood of developing a the neurocognitive disorder comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof.


In some other embodiments, the biomarker panel for use in the method for diagnosing, staging or assessing in a subject the likelihood of developing a the neurocognitive disorder comprises phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and thymosin beta-4 comprising or having the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof and, optionally ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1 which comprises or has an amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:4 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof and/or vitamin D binding protein which comprises or has an amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO: 5 or an isoform or variant or a fragment thereof.


In some embodiments of the methods described herein the neurocognitive disorder is selected from the group of mild cognitive impairment, Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, dementia with lewy bodies, fronto-temporal dementia or combinations thereof. Preferably, the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease (AD).


In some of these embodiments of the method described herein, the neurocognitive disorder, preferably AD, is characterised by microglia activation.


In one embodiment of the present invention, the method for diagnosing a neurocognitive disorder in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has a neurocognitive disorder by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers; wherein the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease and, optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of the present invention, the method for staging a neurocognitive disorder in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining the stage of the neurocognitive disorder in said subject by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers; wherein the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease and, optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of the present invention, the method for assessing in a subject the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject is likely to develop a neurocognitive disorder in said subject by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers; wherein the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease and, optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


The present invention also provides for a method for treating Alzheimer's disease in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has Alzheimer's disease by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;
    • d) administering to said subject an Alzheimer's disease treatment selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof.


Optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


The present invention further provides for a method for aiding the prognosis of a treatment for Alzheimer's disease in a subject, the method comprising:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether said treatment for Alzheimer's disease is successful by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers. Preferably the treatment for Alzheimer's disease is selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof. Optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


The sample used in the methods according to the present invention may be selected from the group of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, plasma, serum, saliva, urine, tissue (e.g. brain tissue) or combinations thereof.


In one embodiment, the sample is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).


In one embodiment of the present invention, the method for diagnosing a neurocognitive disorder in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has a neurocognitive disorder by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers; wherein the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease, wherein the sample is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and, optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of the present invention, the method for staging a neurocognitive disorder in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining the stage of the neurocognitive disorder in said subject by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers; wherein the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease, wherein the sample is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and, optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of the present invention, the method for assessing in a subject the likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject is likely to develop a neurocognitive disorder in said subject by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers; wherein the neurocognitive disorder is Alzheimer's disease, wherein the sample is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and, optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment the method for treating Alzheimer's disease in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for the biomarkers of the biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has Alzheimer's disease by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;
    • d) administering to said subject an Alzheimer's disease treatment selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof; wherein the sample is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment the method for aiding the prognosis of a treatment for Alzheimer's disease in a subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether said treatment for Alzheimer's disease is successful by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers, and wherein the sample is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Preferably the treatment for Alzheimer's disease is selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof. Optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof. In the methods described herein, the subject is preferably a human subject, who may have or may have not been previously diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment.


In some embodiments, the human subject may be undergoing further clinical assessment of dementia.


In some embodiments of the methods described herein, the assaying in step a) and/or the measuring in step b) may further comprise:

    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or
    • iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv).


In particular, the assaying step a) and/or the measuring step b) may comprise detecting one or more fragments of said biomarker in the biomarker panel. Optionally, the sample is immobilised on a solid support.


Therefore, in one embodiment, the method for diagnosing Alzheimer's disease in a human subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has Alzheimer's disease by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;


      wherein the assaying is step a) and/or the measuring in step b) may further comprise:
    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or
    • iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv); and


      optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of the present invention, the method for staging Alzheimer's disease in a human subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining the stage of Alzheimer's disease in said subject by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;


      wherein the assaying is step a) and/or the measuring in step b) may further comprise:
    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or
    • iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv); and


      optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment of the present invention, the method for assessing in a subject the likelihood of developing Alzheimer's disease in a human subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject is likely to develop Alzheimer's disease by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker of the biomarker panel in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;


      wherein the assaying is step a) and/or the measuring in step b) may further comprise:
    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or
    • iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv); and


      optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment, the method for treating Alzheimer's disease in a human subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of the biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether that subject has Alzheimer's disease by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;
    • d) administering to said subject an Alzheimer's disease treatment selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof;


      wherein the assaying is step a) and/or the measuring in step b) may further comprise:
    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or
    • iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv); and


      optionally the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In another embodiment the method for aiding the prognosis of a treatment for Alzheimer's disease in a human subject comprises:

    • a) assaying a sample obtained from said subject for biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measuring in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determining whether said treatment for Alzheimer's disease is successful by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarker in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers, wherein the treatment for Alzheimer's disease is selected from the group of memantine (e.g. Namenda®), galantamine (e.g. Razadyne®), rivastigmine (e.g. Exelon®), donepezil (e.g. Aricept®), solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists or combinations thereof, and


      wherein the assaying is step a) and/or the measuring in step b) may further comprise:
    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or
    • iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv).


Optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 or fragments thereof.


In some preferred embodiments of all the methods described herein, the concentration or the amount of phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof is increased compared to its reference concentration or amount.


In some other preferred embodiments of all the methods described herein, the concentration or the amount of thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof is increased compared to its reference concentration or amount.


In some other preferred embodiments of all the methods described herein, the concentration or the amount of phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof is increased compared to its reference concentration or amount and the concentration or the amount of thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof is increased compared to its reference concentration or amount.


The present invention further provide for a method for identifying biomarkers in a sample obtained from a subject, wherein the biomarkers are suitable for diagnosing or staging Alzheimer's disease, wherein the method comprises using activate microglia cells (e.g. BV2 cells) and/or their culture media in mass spectrometry and/or wherein the biomarkers are identified in said sample by using activated microglia cells as a reference. Preferably the biomarker panel comprises the biomarkers as defined herein. The sample as described above may be selected from the group of CSF, blood, serum or plasma.


2. Kits

The present invention also provides for kits comprising reagents for assaying and/or measuring in a sample biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof.


Optionally, the biomarker panel further comprises at least one, alternatively two or more, biomarkers selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, or 4 or fragments thereof.


Preferably, the kit allows the diagnosing and staging of neurocognitive disorders, in particular Alzheimer's disease.


The reagents of the kits according to the invention may comprise one or more binding agents which specifically bind to the biomarkers of the biomarker panels. Preferably, the one or more binding agents are primary antibodies, wherein each primary antibody specifically binds to a different biomarker of the biomarker panel.


More preferably, the primary antibodies are antibodies against human phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or human thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof.


The primary antibodies may be immobilised on an assay plate, beads, microspheres or particles. Optionally, beads, microspheres or particles may be dyed, tagged or labelled.


When the kits comprise primary antibodies against the biomarkers of the biomarker panel, the kits may further comprise one or more secondary antibodies which specifically bind to said primary antibodies.


Optionally, the secondary antibodies may be labelled for example fluorescent labelled or tagged.


The kits according to the invention may further comprise one or more detection reagents for detecting the presence of the tagged secondary antibodies.


The sample is selected from the group of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, plasma, serum, saliva, urine, tissue (e.g. brain tissue) or combinations thereof.


The kits of the invention allows the user to:

    • a) assay a sample obtained from a subject for the biomarkers of the biomarker panel comprising phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform or a variant or a fragment thereof; and/or thymosin beta-4 which comprises or has the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or a fragment thereof;
    • b) measure in said sample the concentration or the amount of each of the biomarkers of said biomarker panel;
    • c) determine whether that subject has a neurocognitive disorder, in particular Alzheimer's disease, by comparing said concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers in said sample with reference concentrations or amounts of said biomarkers;


In particular, the kits according to the invention may instruct the user to assay (as in step a)) and/or to measure (as in step b)) the sample by:

    • i) contacting said sample with one or more binding agents to each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • ii) detecting in said sample autoantibodies specific to each of said biomarkers; or
    • iii) detecting in said sample by mass spectrometry each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel, optionally by previously labelling said sample with one or more isobaric reactive mass labels; or
    • iv) detecting in said sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of said biomarkers of the biomarker panel; or
    • v) any combinations of i), ii), iii) and/or iv).


In yet another embodiment, the kits may comprise reagents suitable for preparing brain tissue, optionally for preparing formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded brain tissue sections.


The kit may additionally provide a reference which provides a quantitative measure by which determination of a concentration or amount of one or more biomarkers can be compared. The reference may indicate the amount or concentration of biomarkers which indicate the presence or staging or likelihood of developing a neurocognitive disorder in particular AD.


The kit may also comprise printed instructions for performing the methods according to the present invention.


In one embodiment, the kit may be for performance of a mass spectrometry assay and may comprise a set of reference peptides (e.g. SRM peptides) in an assay compatible format wherein each peptide in the set is uniquely representative of each of the biomarkers provided in Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8. Preferably two or more of such unique peptides are used for each biomarker for which the kit is designed, and wherein each set of unique peptides are provided in known amounts which reflect the amount or concentration of such biomarker in a sample of a healthy subject.


Optionally, the kit may also provide protocols and reagents for the isolation and extraction of the biomarkers according to the invention from a sample, a purified preparation of a proteolytic enzyme such as trypsin and a detailed protocol of the method including details of the precursor mass and specific transitions to be monitored. The peptides may be synthetic peptides and may comprise one or more heavy isotopes of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and/or hydrogen.


Optionally, the kits of the present invention may also comprise appropriate cells, vessels, growth media and buffers.


3. Detection and Measurement of Biomarkers

The biomarker panels described herein comprise both biomarkers where expression is modulated, i.e. quantitatively increased or decreased, and biomarkers which are exclusively present or absent, i.e. qualitatively expressed, in normal versus disease states. The degree to which expression differs in normal versus disease states need only be large enough to be visualised via standard characterisation techniques.


Methods for the detection and quantification of biomarkers are well known in the art and any suitable method may be employed.


In one embodiment, the biomarker(s) in the biomarker panel may be detected using a binding agent, such as an antibody, specific to that biomarker, for example in an ELISA assay or Western blotting.


Methods relating to the production of antibodies capable of specifically recognising one or more epitopes of the individual biomarkers in the biomarker panels described herein are known in the art. Such antibodies may include, but are not limited to, polyclonal antibodies, monoclonal antibodies (mAbs), humanised or chimeric antibodies, single chain antibodies, Fab fragments, F(ab′)2 fragments, fragments produced by a Fab expression library, anti-idiotypic (anti-Id) antibodies, and epitope-binding fragments of any of the above.


For the production of antibodies, various host animals may be immunised by injection with a protein, or a portion thereof. Such host animals may include, but are not limited to, rabbits, mice and rats. Various adjuvants may be used to increase the immunological response, depending on the host species, including active substances such as lysolecithin, Pluronic polyols, polyanions, peptides, oil emulsions, keyhole limpet hemocyamin, dinitrophenol, and potentially useful human adjuvant such as BCG bacille Calmette-Fuerin) and Corynebacterium parvum.


Polyclonal antibodies are heterogeneous populations of antibody molecules derived from the sera of animals immunised with an antigen, such as target proteins, or an antigenic functional derivative thereof. For the production of polyclonal antibodies, host animals such as those described above, may be immunised by injection with differentially expressed or pathway protein supplemented with adjuvants as also described above.


Monoclonal antibodies, which are homogeneous populations of antibodies to a particular antigen, may be obtained by any technique, which provides for the production of antibody molecules by continuous cell lines in culture. These include, but are not limited to, the hybridoma technique of Kohler and Milstein (1975, Nature 256:495-7; and U.S. Pat. No. 4,376,110), the human β-cell hybridoma technique (Kosbor, et al., 1983, Immunology Today 4:72; Cole, et al., 1983, Proc. Natl. Acad. Sci. USA 80:2026-30), and the EBV-hybridoma technique (Cole, et al., 1985, Monoclonal Antibodies and Cancer Therapy, Alan R. Liss Inc., pp. 77-96). Such antibodies may be of any immunoglobulin class including IgG, IgM, IgE, IgA, IgD and any subclass thereof. The hybridoma producing the mAb of this invention may be cultivated in vitro or in vivo. Production of high titers of mAbs in vivo makes this the presently preferred method of production.


In addition, techniques developed for the production of ‘chimeric antibodies’ (Morrison, et al., 1984, Proc. Natl. Acad. Sci. 81:6851-5; Neuberger, et al., 1984, Nature 312:604-8; Takeda, et al., 1985, Nature 314:452-4) by splicing the genes from a mouse antibody molecule of appropriate antigen specificity together with genes from a human antibody molecule of appropriate biological activity can be used. A chimeric antibody is a molecule in which different portions are derived from different animal species, such as those having a variable region derived from a murine mAb and a human immunoglobulin constant region.


Alternatively, techniques described for the production of single chain antibodies (U.S. Pat. No. 4,946,778; Bird, 1988, Science 242: 423-6; Huston, et al., 1988, Proc. Natl. Acad. Sci. USA 85:5879-83; and Ward, et al., 1989, Nature 334:544-6) can be adapted to produce differentially expressed or pathway protein-single chain antibodies. Single chain antibodies are formed by linking the heavy and light chain fragments of the Fv region via an amino acid bridge, resulting in a single chain polypeptide.


Antibody fragments, which recognise specific epitopes, may be generated by known techniques.


For example, such fragments include, but are not limited to, the F(ab′)2 fragments which can be produced by pepsin digestion of the antibody molecule and the Fab fragments which can be generated by reducing the disulfide bridges of the F(ab′)2 fragments. Alternative, Fab expression libraries may be constructed (Huse, et al., 1989, Science 246:1275-81) to allow rapid and easy identification of monoclonal Fab fragments with the desired specificity.


In some embodiments of the methods described herein, the sample may be immobilised on a solid support for analysis. An antibody sandwich technique may be employed in which binding agents, such as antibodies, specific for the individual biomarkers in the biomarker panel are immobilized on a solid support such as a planar surface or a microparticle bead and biomarkers in the panel are captured by the immobilised binding agents, such as immobilized antibodies. The captured biomarkers are then detected using a second binding agent, such as a secondary antibody, that may be directly labelled with a signal generating agent (enzyme, fluorescent tag, radiolabel etc.) or may be detected using further amplification (labelled secondary antibody, streptavidin/biotin systems with enzyme, fluorophore, radiolabel etc.). Other methods may include, but are not limited to, one-dimensional or two-dimensional (2D) gel electrophoresis of samples. Such methods are followed by transfer to a solid surface using techniques such as Western blotting and subsequent detection using antibodies specific for the AD biomarkers.


In other embodiments, autoantibodies to the biomarkers may be detected using the Western blotting approach described above using samples from a healthy subject, a patient or representative of AD, and then detecting the presence of auto-antibodies specific for the biomarker that are present in the sample, but not in healthy subjects.


An example of a non-antibody binding agent is an aptamer. Examples of aptamers include nucleic acid aptamers and peptide aptamers.


Alternatively, the biomarkers may be detected by, amongst others, silver staining of 2D gel electrophoresis or mass spectrometry techniques including LS/MS/MS, MALDI-TOF, SELDI-TOF and TMT-SRM.


Other such standard characterisation techniques by which expression differences may be visualised are well known to those skilled in the art. These include successive chromatographic separations of fractions and comparisons of the peaks, capillary electrophoresis, separations using micro-channel networks, including on a micro-chip, SELDI analysis and qPST analysis.


Chromatographic separations can be carried out by high performance liquid chromatography as described in literature, the chromatogram being obtained in the form of a plot of absorbance of light at 280 nm against time of separation. The material giving incompletely resolved peaks is then re-chromatographed and so on.


Capillary electrophoresis is a technique described in many publications, for example in the literature “Total CE Solutions” supplied by Beckman with their P/ACE 5000 system. The technique depends on applying an electric potential across the sample contained in a small capillary tube. The tube has a charged surface, such as negatively charged silicate glass. Oppositely charged ions (in this instance, positive ions) are attracted to the surface and then migrate to the appropriate electrode of the same polarity as the surface (in this instance, the cathode). In this electro-osmotic flow (EOF) of the sample, the positive ions move fastest, followed by uncharged material and negatively charged ions. Thus, proteins are separated essentially according to charge on them.


Micro-channel networks function similarly to capillaries and can be formed by photoablation of a polymeric material. In this technique, a UV laser is used to generate high energy light pulses that are fired in bursts onto polymers having suitable UV absorption characteristics, for example polyethylene terephthalate or polycarbonate. The incident photons break chemical bonds with a confined space, leading to a rise in internal pressure, mini-explosions and ejection of the ablated material, leaving behind voids which form micro-channels. The micro-channel material achieves a separation based on EOF, as for capillary electrophoresis. It is adaptable to micro-chip form, each chip having its own sample injector, separation column and electrochemical detector: see J. S. Rossier et al., 1999, Electrophoresis 20:727-31.


Surface enhanced laser desorption ionisation time of flight mass spectrometry (SELDI-TOF-MS) combined with ProteinChip technology can also provide a rapid and sensitive means of profiling biomarkers and is used as an alternative to 2D gel electrophoresis in a complementary fashion. The ProteinChip system consists of aluminium chips to which protein samples can be selectively bound on the surface chemistry of the chip (e.g. anionic, cationic, hydrophobic, hydrophilic, etc.). Bound biomarkers are then co-crystallised with a molar excess of small energy-absorbing molecules. The chip is then analysed by short intense pulses of N2 320 nm UV laser with protein separation and detection being by time of flight mass spectrometry. Spectral profiles of each group within an experiment are compared and any peaks of interest can be further analysed using techniques as described below to establish the identity of the biomarkers.


Isotopic or isobaric Tandem Mass Tags® (TMT® Thermo Scientific, Rockford, USA) technology may also be used to detect biomarkers such as proteins of a biomarker panel described herein. Briefly, the proteins in the samples for comparison are optionally digested, labelled with a stable isotope tag and quantified by mass spectrometry. In this way, expression of equivalent proteins in the different samples can be compared directly by comparing the intensities of their respective isotopic peaks or of reporter ions released from the TMT® reagents during fragmentation in a tandem mass spectrometry experiment.


Detection of biomarkers of biomarker panels described herein may be preceded by a depletion step to remove the most abundant proteins from the sample. The large majority of the protein composition of serum/plasma consists of just a few proteins. For example, albumin, which is present at a concentration of 35-50 mg/ml, represents approximately 54% of the total protein content with IgG adding other 16%. In contrast, proteins changing in response to disease, for example as a result of tissue leakage, may circulate at 10 ng/ml. This vast dynamic range of protein concentrations represents a major analytical challenge and to overcome the problem, a multiple affinity depletion column may be used to remove the most highly abundant proteins (e.g. the 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 or 10 or more highly abundant proteins). This enables the detection of changes in lower abundance ranges because more starting material can be used and there is less interference from the highly abundant molecules. Such a depletion strategy can be applied before any detection method.


4. Method to Screen and Select Test Agents for the Treatment of Neurocognitive Disorders

The biomarker panels described herein may be used to test agents for the ability to prevent or ameliorate neurocognitive disorders, such as AD, or one or more symptoms thereof.


Such agents may be tested in human subjects in clinical trials. Any agent which restores the expression of the proteins in a biomarker panel described herein towards levels found in healthy individuals or towards its absence or presence as the case may be, is of potential use in treating a neurocognitive disorder, such as AD, i.e. reducing AD symptoms or slowing the progression of AD.


During clinical trials, for example, the amount or concentration of one or more biomarkers of a biomarker panel as described herein can be determined in the presence or absence of the agent being tested. The efficacy of the agent can be followed by comparing the expression data obtained to the corresponding known expression patterns in a normal state. Agents exhibiting efficacy are those which alter the presence, amount or concentration of the biomarkers in the biomarker panel to more closely resemble that of the normal state.


The detection of the biomarkers in the biomarker panel in the neurocognitive disorder relative to their expression or presence in a normal state can also be used for monitoring the efficacy of potential agents for the treatment of a neurocognitive disorder, such as AD, during clinical trials. During clinical trials, the level and/or presence of the biomarkers in the biomarker panel can be determined in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the presence or absence of the agent being tested. The efficacy of the agent can be followed by comparing the biomarker levels and/or presence of the biomarkers in the data obtained, to the corresponding known levels/presence for the cells and/or tissues and/or body fluids in a normal state. Agents exhibiting efficacy are those which alter the presence, amount or concentration of the biomarker panel of the cell and/or tissue sample and/or body fluid from a subject to more closely resemble that of the normal state or which stabilise the pattern i.e. prevent progression of the disease. Because the present biomarker panels translate events and changes in pathways that occur in the brain into a peripheral signal, they allow replacing tissue testing with a peripheral fluid testing. This represents a great advantage especially as the tissue primarily affected in neurocognitive disorder is the brain tissue. Brain biopsies are not carried out and the only tissue analysis carried out is post-mortem.


With regard to intervention, any treatments that restore or partially restore the expression of biomarkers in a biomarker panel described herein to healthy levels should be considered as candidates for therapeutic intervention in neurocognitive disorders such as AD. Dosages of test agents may be determined by deriving dose-response curves.


Similarly, any treatments that can prevent the development of neurocognitive disorders such as AD or prevent progression to levels of more advanced AD should be considered as candidates for the AD therapeutic intervention.


An agent may be selected if it prevents or slows the change over time in presence, concentration or amount of the biomarkers of the biomarker panels relative to controls.


Preferably, the agent is selected if it converts the amount or concentration of a biomarker of the biomarker panels towards that of a normal subject.


The agent may be selected if it slows or stops the change of concentration or amount over time. For example, agents which exhibit inhibitory activity, may be used in accordance with the invention to prevent mild cognitive impairment or AD symptoms. Such molecules may include, but are not limited to, peptides (such as, for example, peptides representing soluble extracellular portions of target protein transmembrane receptors), phosphopeptides, small organic or inorganic molecules, or antibodies (including, for example, polyclonal, monoclonal, humanised, anti-idiotypic, chimeric or single chain antibodies, and Fab, F(ab′)2 and Fab expression library fragments, and epitope-binding fragments thereof).


5. Examples

Certain aspects and embodiments of the invention will now be illustrated by way of example and with reference to the figures and tables described above. All documents mentioned in this specification are incorporated herein by reference in their entirety for all purposes.


All reagents for the cell culture and samples preparation were purchased from Sigma Aldrich® (Dorset, UK) unless stated. Tandem Mass Tags® (Thermo Scientific®); Acetonitrile (Fisher Scientific®, Loughborough, UK); Trypsin (Roche Diagnostics®, West Sussex, UK).


BV2 Cells Samples—


BV2 cells were seeded into 6 well plates at 80,000 cells per well and maintained at 37° C. at 5% CO2. Cells were cultured for 24 hours in Dulbecco's modified eagle medium (Gibco®, Life Technologies) with 10% fetal bovine serum (Gibco®) supplemented with 2 mM L-glutamine, 100 U/mL penicillin and 100 mg/mL streptomycin, gentamycin and mycoplasma removal agent (AbD Serotec®). To activate the cells, a solution made of 2 μg/ml lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and 10 ng/ml interferon-gamma (IFNγ) (R&D Systems®)(Gordon S, et al., Nat Rev Immunol. 2005, 5, 12, 953-64. Dale D C, et al., Blood. 2008, 15, 112, 4, 935-45) was applied for 24 hours prior to harvesting. Cells were lysed in 8M urea, 75 mM NaCl, 50 mM Tris (pH 8.2) before sonication on ice (20×1 sec 20% amplitude) and centrifuged at 12,500 g for 10 mins at 4° C. The protein concentration of the cell lysate was estimated by Bradford assay. Samples were aliquoted to prevent freeze-thawing and stored at −80° C. The BV2 cells samples will be referred herein after as “calibrator” as they will be used to create calibration curves in the following experiments.


Cerebrospinal Fluid Samples—


CSF samples were from subjects who sought medical advice because of cognitive impairment. Subjects were designated as normal or AD according to CSF biomarker concentrations using cutoffs that are 90% sensitive and specific for AD): total tau (T-tau)>350 ng/L, phospho-tau (P-tau)>80 ng/L and Aβ42<530 ng/L (Hansson O, et al., Lancet Neurol. 2006, 5:228-34. None of the biochemically normal subjects fulfilled these criteria. CSF T-tau, P-tau and Aβ42 concentration were determined using INNOTEST enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (Fujirebio, Ghent, Belgium) by board-certified laboratory technicians according to protocols approved by the Swedish Board for Accreditation and Conformity Assessment (SWEDAC). The study was approved by the regional ethics committee at the University of Gothenburg.


In-Solution Tryptic Digest and Tandem Mass Taq® (TMT®) Labelling—


Following solubilization and denaturation in 100 mM TEAB buffer and 0.1% sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS), the CSF samples and the BV2 cell-line (calibrator) were reduced with 1 mM TCEP at 55° C. for 60 min and alkylated with 7.5 mM iodoacetamide at room temperature for 60 min. Trypsin was used for digestion at an approximate 1:25 weight ratio of trypsin-to-total protein and incubated at 37° C. overnight (˜18 h). Following digestion, the peptides obtained were labeled with one of the TMT® 10-plex reagents at 15 mM and incubated for 60 min at room temperature. To quench the TMT® reaction, 0.25% hydroxylamine was added to each sample and incubated for 15 min. The samples were then combined to generate an analytical sample comprising a 1:10 calibration curve of non-activated BV2 cells, a 1:10 calibration curve of activated BV2 cells and equal amount of six CSF samples and incubated for a further 15 min (FIG. 6). Each sample was desalted using RP18 columns (Waters, Manchester, UK) and excess reagents and SDS were removed by strong cation exchange (SCX) purification. Peptides were eluted in 75% acetonitrile (ACN)+400 mM NH4Oac (Ammonium Acetate) and dried to completion. For mass spectrometry (MS) analysis the sample was resuspended in 2% ACN+0.1% formic acid.


LC-MS/MS—


Quantitative analysis was performed in triplicate using an Orbitrap Fusion Tribrid® mass spectrometer (Thermo Scientific®) in the positive mode with EASYnLC1000 system and a 50 cm EASY-Spray column (Thermo Scientific®). The column temperature was maintained at 40° C., and the peptides were separated at a flow rate of 200 nL/min.


Peptides were eluted from the column over a 300 min gradient, from 3% to 30% solvent B (acetonitrile with 0.1% formic acid) in 280 min, followed by an increase to 80% solvent B in 10 mins, which was held for a further 10 mins. Solvent A was water with 0.1% formic acid. Wash and blank LC-MS/MS runs preceded the analysis.


A Top10 CID-HCD MS3 SPS method with a 2 second cycle time was utilized and the parameters were as follows: MS; Spray voltage—2000V; ion transfer tube temperature—275° C.; detector—Orbitrap; scan range (m/z)—400-1400; resolution—120000; AGC target—5×105. MS/MS (CID); Isolation mode—quadropole; collision energy—35%; detector—Ion trap; AGC target—4×103. MS3 (HCD); detector—Orbitrap; collision energy—55%; scan range—100-1000 m/z; resolution power—30000; AGC target—6×104.


Bioinformatics—


LC-MS/MS data was initially processed using SequestHT and Mascot within Proteome Discoverer 1.4, against the Uniprot human protein database (ftp://ftp.uniprot.org/pub/databases/uniprot/current_release/knowledgebase/proteomes/). After applying a 5% false discovery rate (FDR)) to filter the data in Proteome Discoverer, the number of peptide and protein identifications was determined.


Experiment A


This experiment was designed to incorporate two 2-point calibration curves using the control (i.e. non-activated) BV2 cells and activated (IFN-γ+LPS) BV2 cells, alongside six (6) CSF samples constituted of three (3) AD CSF samples and 3 non-AD CSF samples); 3 AD CSF samples were compared with three (3) non-AD control CSF samples using a two×2-point calibration curve of control and activated BV2 cells to detect biomarkers of activation in a 3 vs 3 vs 2 vs 2 TMT® 10-plex MS3 method. The experiment was designed so that the protein content from the BV2 cells dominated the total protein content in the sample. The two×2-point calibration curve samples were spiked at a ratio of 1:10 and the 6 CSF samples were calculated to fall within this range. The total protein content that can be injected onto the MS column is 2 μg, therefore, the CSF samples' protein content per inject is limited to 121 ng per channel per CSF sample.


All CSF samples and the BV2 cells samples were solubilised, reduced and alkylated (as outlined above) prior to overnight tryptic digestion. Subsequently, all peptide samples were TMT® labelled as below, using the TMT10plex reagents:

    • 126—control CSF 1
    • 127e—control CSF 2
    • 127—control CSF 3
    • 128e—AD CSF 1
    • 128—AD CSF 2
    • 129e—AD CSF 3
    • 129—non-activated BV2 cell line
    • 130e—non-activated cultured BV2 cell line
    • 130—IFNγ+LPS activated BV2 cell line
    • 131—IFNγ+LPS activated BV2 cell line


The TMT10plex labelled samples were mixed so as to generate a 1:10 calibration curve for the resting cells (channels 129 & 130e), a 1:10 calibration curve for the activated cells (channels 130 & 131) and equal levels of the 6 CSF samples wherein the total protein content from the cell digests is approximately double that for the CSF samples (FIG. 6). The mixed analytical sample was de-salted and cleaned (excess TMT® labels removed) and split into 2. Half of the sample was frozen and the remainder was fractionated by high pH reverse phase fractionation into 8 separate fractions. These were analysed on the new generation Orbitrap Fusion using a gradient of 3 hours.


The raw data files from all MS injections were searched using SequestHT and Mascot in Proteome Discoverer 1.4, against the Uniprot human protein database.


The reporter ion signal intensities from the 6 CSF channels were normalised by sum-scale normalization, a mathematical approach to remove experimental bias. The process involves summing the intensity values for all analytes measured in a given sample and then calculating the median value across all the summed values. The median value is divided by each summed value to create a correction factor which is multiplied to the original intensity values to give the normalized sum scaled measurement (Robinson M D, et al., Bioinformatics 2010, 26:139-40; De Livera A M, et al., Anal. Chem. 2012, 84, 24, 10768-76) and the variability across the CSF dataset was investigated using Principle Component Analysis (PCA) plots. It was found that the CSF samples separate by disease status at the peptide and protein level with the first principle component accounting for 79.9% of the total variation leading to group separation (data not shown).


In the first analysis of the MS data, the ratio of the signal intensity in the calibrator channels (129, 130e, 130 and 131) was expected to be 1:10 for the non-activated (129 and 130e) and 1:10 in the activated cells (130 and 131). The observed intensities across the two non-activated cell channels and across the two activated cell channels (calibrator) was calculated for every single peptide. Peptides with a ratio of 1:10±15% were considered to be acceptable calibrators. Only 22 peptides were found to contain an acceptable calibrator using these parameters.


In a second approach to identify which peptides show regulation with disease, the log 2 ratio of the average signal intensities in the three AD CSF samples compared to the average signal in the three control CSF samples was determined. A p-value for this ratio was established following a 2-sample t-test across the two CSF groups for every single peptide and protein (providing a signal was present in all 6 of the CSF TMT® channels). The log 2 ratio of the two calibrator channels in the non-activated cells and the activated cells was also calculated to show which peptides are regulated with BV2 cell activation. The ratio was calculated for the low spike calibrator in activated and control cells, and also for the high spike calibrator.


A total of 564 peptides were found to be up-regulated by at least 60% in the activated vs control BV2 cells (filtered for 60% increase in both the high and low calibrator ratio's). These were shown to map to 9 KEGG pathways, the most significant being the complement and coagulation cascades pathway, followed by the glycolysis/glycogenesis, the prion disease, the amino and nucleotide sugar metabolism, the antigen processing and presentation, the extracellular matrix-receptor interaction, the focal adhesion, the regulation of actin cytoskeleton and alanine/aspartate/glutamate metabolism pathways.


This first data set processing included all the peptides detected, regardless of missing TMR® reporter ion channels and allow the identification of peptides that are present in the CSF of AD patients that are absent in controls, or similarly, peptides which are present in activated BV2 cells that are not present in non-activated BV2 cells.


Of the 564 peptides up-regulated in activated BV2 cells, 75 were also found to be at least 60% elevated in AD CSF compared to control CSF. These 75 peptides map to 58 proteins as listed in Table 1. Proteins which are well known to be elevated in the brain of AD patients like Peroxiredoxin (Kim S H et al., J Neural Transm Suppl. 2001; (61):223-35)(FIG. 3A) and are considered biomarkers of oxidative stress (Poynton R A et al., Biochim Biophys Acta. 2014, 1840:906-12) are present along with proteins well known to be elevated in BV2 cells upon activation by LPS for example MARCKS-related protein (FIG. 3B), (Sunohara J R et al., J Neurochem. 2001 78:664-72) and amyloid-beta (Murphy A et al., Neurosci Lett. 2003, 347:9-12); Moesin (FIG. 3C), part of the extra-cellular matrix complex, which helps in the non-amyloidogenic processing of APP; Actin (FIG. 3D), known to be increased in AD patients' CSF, specifically in those individuals carrying the ApoE4 allele (Merched A et al., FEBS Lett. 1998, 425:225-8.).


From the list of regulated peptides, 35 peptides from 29 proteins had a signal in all 10 channels, with 4 peptides having significant regulation (p≦0.05) as shown in Table 6.












TABLE 6





SEQ ID





NO:
Peptide
Protein
P value







 6
QFSANDK
Phosphoglucomutase-1
0.031





14
NPLPSKETIEQEK
Thymosin beta-4
0.050





17
QIEELKGQEVSPK
Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal 
0.047




hydrolase isozyme L1






18
HQPQEFPTYVEPTNDEICEAFRK
Vitamin D-binding protein
0.002









These peptides are found to be regulated by at least 60% with BV2 cell activation and are significantly up-regulated by at least 60% in the CSF of AD patients (FIG. 4A-D). Peptide NPLPSKETIEQEK (SEQ ID NO: 14) is found in both TMSB4XP4 protein and homologous protein Thymosin beta-4. The protein sequences of these two proteins are identical apart from the first 19 residues of TMSB4XP4 which are absent in Thymosin beta-4.


Phosphoglucomutase 1 was not detected when the CSF samples were measured in the absence of the BV2 cell sample calibrator, whilst Thymosin beta-4 was detected in both settings. Of the total eight (8) peptides detected for Phosphoglucomutase 1 (Table 7), 5 were regulated (≧60%; in bold in Table 7) but not significantly and only one was found to be significantly regulated with a P value ≦0.05 (QFSANDK; SEQ ID NO:6).


Three (3) peptides were detected for Thymosin beta-4 but only peptide NPLPSKETIEQEK (SEQ ID NO:14) was significantly regulated (Table 7) with one other also regulated ≧60% but not significantly (also in bold in Table 7).









TABLE 7







Phosphoglucomutase-1















Peptide
Control
AD




Log2_
Pvalue












SEQ ID NO:
CSF
CSF
Calibrator
AD/C
(peptide)


















QFSANDK
  783.61
 3435.34
6060
78200
17800
137000
1.799
0.0313


6
 1291.05
 4495.23









 2946.03
 5220.72











IDAMHGVV
 1167.54
 4756.93
26300
406000
84500
654000
1.390
0.3109


GPYVK
NA
 5036.78








7
 2673.66
20413.03











VDLGVLGK
 1194.79
 2424.98
15600
205000
44600
376000
0.566
0.3430


8
 2901.17
 4295.25









 4574.59
15990.21











LYIDSYEK
 1200.04
  855.75
693
13700
3100
24300
1.119
0.5194


9
 1406.51
 3055.20









3993.841
 6859.42











SMPTSGAL
 2822.50
 2375.48
1930
29400
6470
42800
0.537
0.8801


DR
 1003.93
  464.43








10
 1326.44
 1925.31











YDYEEVEA
  442.82
NA
8410
141000
14400
119000
1.566
NA


EGANK
NA
  649.20








11
NA
 1973.66











IALYETPTG
NA
  623.68
8250
115000
26300
201000
-0.248
NA


WK
NA
  789.49








12
  938.10
 6944.43











QSVEDILK
NA
NA
2900
41700
9360
59200
2.573
NA


13
  587.03
NA









  576.36
 3463.72










Thymosin beta-4















Peptide
Control
AD




Log2_
Pvalue












SEQ ID NO:
CSF
CSF
Calibrator
AD/C
(peptide)


















NPLPSKETI
4033.76
11913.75
3810
 56000
 9160
122000
0.7409
0.0497


EQEK
7534.52
10537.66








14
7128.95
18341.59











TETQEKNPL
3098.65
 9727.02
8350
155000
23700
360000
0.8591
0.0819


PSK
5362.34
 6806.84








15
5895.98
14528.34











ETIEQEK
19629.59
35338.74
2890
43300
 7980
 44200
0.1631
0.2858


16
33720.30
37756.83









39302.79
96515.70









When the data are filtered to identify peptides regulated in the CSF from AD samples compared to the non-AD samples, 1924 peptides were found to be up-regulated by at least 60% in AD CSF compared to non-AD CSF. A total of 63 peptides, mapping to 53 proteins were found to be significantly up-regulated (p≦0.05) as shown in Table 2. The list in Table 2 shows some proteins that are known to be regulated in AD CSF, like ApoE, Gelsolin, Secretogranin, Albumin and complement proteins. These examples demonstrate that the approach used herein allows the identification and quantification of peptides from well-known AD biomarkers which commonly appear in CSF in addition to peptides that represent novel CSF biomarkers of early changes in AD following microglia activation.


The top 10 most up-regulated peptides in AD CSF compared to non-AD and their corresponding proteins are shown in Table 8.












TABLE 8





Peptide





SEQ ID NO:
Protein names
Log2_AD/C
Pvalue







AYKSELEEQLTPVAEETR
Apolipoprotein E
4.300
0.0024


19








GYPGVQAPEDLEWER
Secretogranin-1
3.717
0.0411


20








AVGPEITK
Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 65
2.768
0.0121


21
kDa reregulatory subunit A alpha isoform







LRDQLGTAK
Cytoplasmic dynein 1 heavy chain 1
2.759
0.0001


22








KTEITDK
RuvB-like 1
2.153
0.0445


23








WELNTYLYAPK
cDNA FLJ54806
2.115
0.0478


24








SDVMYTDWKK
Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein 2
2.050
0.0283


25








FFETSAK
Ras-related protein Rab-13
1.966
0.0467


26








DAHKSEVAHR
Serum albumin
1.901
0.0093


27








LKLSYEGEVTK





28
Pigment epithelium-derived factor
1.887
0.0085









Down regulation was also observed, although the peptide numbers were much lower. Eight (8) peptides were down-regulated by at least 60% in the activated BV2 cells and in AD CSF, and only 1 of these, Serum amyloid A4 protein, had a significant p value (p=0.014) based on the 3 vs 3 CSF channels.









TABLE 9







Peptide










SEQ ID NO:
Protein names
Log2_AD/C
Pvalue





EALQGVGDMGR
Serum amyloid A-4 protein
-1.067
0.0138


29








LAEYHAK
Truncated apolipoprotein A-I
-1.236
0.0194


30








TVIGPDGHK
Fibrinogen alpha chain
-1.389
0.1340


31








DIAPTLTLYVGK
Haptoglobin
-1.616
0.1480


32








SASLHLPK
Alpha-1-antitrypsin
-0.845
0.1816


33








FTCTVTHTDLPSPLK
Ig mu chain C region
-2.516
0.3394


34








VLGAFSDGLAHLDNLK
Hemoglobin subunit delta
-2.468
0.4325


35








ISVAQGASK
IgGFc-binding protein
-0.759
0.5297


36









Experiment B


In order to enhance the MS data acquisition from the BV2 cell line calibrator, experiment B was designed as a 4-point calibration curve to be spiked into the total combined CSF samples at a ratio of 1:4:6:10 in order to ensure the calibrator proteins dominated the overall protein content of the TMT® 10-plex sample. These are arbitrary values allowing to determine a suitable protein load from the CSF samples for analysis. Six individual CSF samples were combined at a 2:2:2:2:2:2 ratio, falling within the 4-point calibration curve.


As the maximum load on column is 2 μg, the true protein load per channel can be determined by dividing the maximum 2 μg by the total number of arbitrary values (x) needed, which in this case is 33 (4 calibrator channels plus 6 CSF channels). If 33× equals 2 μg, 1× is therefore 0.06 μg and this can then be used to determine the total amount of protein from each of the 10 channels contributing to the calibrator analytical sample. Just 0.12 μg of each CSF sample is required (2×), along with a 4-point calibrator comprised of 0.06 μg (1×), 0.24 μg (4×), 0.36 μg (6×) and 0.6 μg (10×). This results in a total of 0.72 μg of protein from all the CSF samples and 1.26 μg of protein from the BV2 cell line calibrator—the calibrator proteins are therefore 1.75 fold more prevalent than the total CSF protein load.


The calibrator sample was analysed in triplicate on the Oribtrap Fusion Tribrid using an MS3 SPS method over a 300 minute gradient. The raw data files from all three MS injections were searched using SequestHT and Mascot in Proteome Discoverer 1.4, against the Uniprot human protein database. Results for the triplicate injections were merged resulting in one large data set for analysis. After applying a 5% false discovery rate (FDR) to filter the data in Proteome Discoverer, the number of peptide and protein IDs from calibrator-derived only, CSF sample derived only, and peptides common to both the microglia cell line calibrator and CSF samples, was determined. The design of this experiment ensured that the MS acquisition was driven by the more prevalent microglia cell line peptides, and this was evident in the peptide IDs recorded. No peptides specific to CSF samples were detected, confirming the premise that the calibrator approach circumvents the issues surrounding highly dominant CSF proteins. Instead, the peptides identified were either specific to the BV2 microglia cells (2,317), or common to CSF and BV2 microglial cells (11,150). These shared peptides were the focus for further analysis to isolate any biomarkers of microglial cells activation present in the CSF. All peptides with signal for all 10 TMT® reporter ions were taken forward for processing through a set of in-house bioinformatics scripts developed in R.


The reporter ion signal intensities from the six CSF channels were normalized by sum-scale normalization. Following normalization the variability across the CSF dataset was investigated using Principal Component Analysis (PCA). Group separation of AD and control CSF was seen at the peptide and protein level, forming the first principal component, and accounting for 44.6% of the total variation seen in the dataset. The second principal component explained 19.6% of the variability in the dataset, and this corresponded to the biological variation within the groups.


To further filter the data, we normalized the cell line calibrator data to one of the calibrator channels (channel 129 as in the previous experiment). This was carried out for the four channels dedicated to calibrator, which allowed us to filter for an expected TMT® calibrator signal signature or pattern. Following normalization, the ratio of the signal intensity in channels 129, 130e, 130 and 131 (calibrator channels) was expected to be 1:4:6:10. To measure a correspondence between expected calibrator signal intensities to observed calibrator intensities, an R2 value across all four channels was calculated for every single peptide. PSM level intensities for the four TMT® calibrator channels show marginal deviation from expected linear calibrator signal intensity ratio of 1:4:6:10. A 39.3% of the peptides had a calibrator R2 of ≧0.95 and were taken on for further data analysis.


The normalized dataset, filtered for the presence of an expected linear calibrator signal intensity was further filtered based on the significance following a 2-sample t-test across the two CSF groups for every single peptide and protein. Peptides with a p value ≦0.05 were considered significant. The log 2 ratio of the average AD CSF signal intensities (channels 128e, 128 and 129e) to control CSF signal intensities (channels 126, 127e and 127) was also normalized to the 129 TMT® calibrator channel. This provided a means of identifying which of the peptide sequences common to the activated microglia cell line and CSF samples were differentially regulated between control and AD CSF. We identified 84 unique peptide sequences from 77 proteins that were significantly up-regulated at least 60% (log 2 ratio ≦−0.7) in AD CSF compared to controls, and 34 unique peptides from 26 proteins that were significantly down-regulated by at least 60% (log 2 ratio ≧0.7).


When the list of regulated peptides in the CSF of AD patients is analysed, the benefit of TMT® calibrator over the traditional proteomics approach can be seen. As stated, the maximum protein load on the 75 μm diameter analytical LC column per injection is 2 ug. In the TMT® calibrator design the 2 μg is split unequally between the 4-point calibrator and the six CSF samples (1:4:6:10 ratio for the calibrator, 2:2:2 for AD CSF and 2:2:2 for non-AD CSF). Without the addition of the calibrator, the six CSF samples could be labelled with TMT in a multiplex experiment, with 0.33 μg combined from each sample per inject. This would not overcome the problems associated with high abundant CSF proteins which would dominate the MS acquisition, preventing lower abundant biomarkers from being detected. To highlight the different results seen after inclusion of the cell line calibrator, the same six CSF samples used in the TMT® calibrator study were equally combined and a total load of 2 μg was analysed in triplicate using the same method. Following the same bioinformatics processing, the results were filtered and analyzed to identify significantly regulated peptides in the AD CSF compared to control CSF samples. Seventy three proteins were significantly regulated by at least 60% (up or down regulation) in CSF but only 16 of these overlapped with significantly regulated peptides in the TMT® calibrator study. The majority of the proteins identified in the CSF samples are known to be secreted proteins, annotated as such under their Uniprot accession entries (such as plasminogen, mimecan and hemopexin). Intracellular biomarkers, such as proteins found commonly in the nucleus, are of particular interest. With the aid of the calibrator, it was possible to identify from the significantly regulated list total of 29 biomarkers which are localized in the nucleus. In the absence of the calibrator, only 5 proteins were found. A large proportion of the significantly regulated proteins found without TMT® calibrator are proteins that are commonly observed in CSF studies including serum albumin, complement proteins (C3, C5 and C7), fibrinogen gamma chain and Ig gamma chain (Boche D, et al., Neuropathol Appl Neurobiol. 2013, 39, 1, 3-18). These proteins are likely representative of disease related changes of low specificity rather than the cellular changes specific to AD. They are some of the most abundant proteins found in the CSF and are reported in the majority of CSF proteomic analysis studies (Hühmer A F, et al., Disease Markers. 2006, 22, 1-2, 3-26). In comparison, the majority of peptides derived when the BV2 cell line is used to drive the experiment are cellular and may represent a cellular response specific to disease. These include peptides from dynactin (FIG. 5A), cofilin (FIG. 5A), alcohol dehydrogenase, filamin-A, myosin proteins and Ras-related proteins. These are cellular proteins regulated in AD that would not have been detected if the CSF samples had been analysed in the absence of the BV2 cell samples (calibrator samples). Peptide IKDALVR (SEQ ID NO: 37), corresponding to dynactin subunit 1 (FIG. 5A), was the most upregulated peptide whist peptide MIYASSK (SEQ ID NO: 38), corresponding to Cofilin-1 (FIG. 5B), was the most down regulated peptide in the CSF of AD patients when compared to non-AD controls.


To conclude, biomarkers are indicators of pathological processes and biological events. Their levels change as a result of disease and also in response to pharmacological intervention. The challenge is how to find these molecules in biofluids such as blood or CSF which contain a high protein dynamic range and hyper-abundant proteins such as albumin.


The inventors have applied a novel Tandem Mass Tag® (TMT®) mass spectrometry (MS) approach, the TMT® calibrator analysis, to look for biomarkers of microglia activation within the CSF of AD patients. BV2 cells are a microglial cell line derived from raf/myc-immortalised murine neonatal microglia (Blasi E, et al., J neuroimmunology. 1990, 27, 2-3, 229-37) and have been used extensively to study microglial activation. Studies have shown their utility as a surrogate for primary microglial cultures which are costly in terms of animals used and time consuming to prepare (Henn A, et al., Alternatives to animal experimentation. 2009, 26, 2, 83-94; Stansley B, et al., J Neuroinflammation. 2012, 31, 9, 115).


The successful application of the TMT® calibrator analysis in this study has provided a novel list of potential biomarker candidates likely originating from activated microglia and circulating in CSF and which are differentially expressed in AD patients compared with non-AD subjects.

Claims
  • 1-26. (canceled)
  • 27. A kit comprising reagents for assaying and/or measuring in a sample biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising: i) a phosphoglucomutase 1 which comprises the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform, variant or fragment thereof; and/orii) a thymosin beta-4 which comprises the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or fragment thereof; andiii) at least one biomarker selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 or a fragment thereof.
  • 28-32. (canceled)
  • 33. The kit according to claim 27, wherein the at least one biomarker selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 is a ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase L1 which comprises the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:4 or an isoform, variant or fragment thereof.
  • 34. The kit according to claim 27, wherein the at least one biomarker selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 is a vitamin D binding protein which comprises the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO: 5 or an isoform, variant or fragment thereof.
  • 35. The kit according to claim 27, wherein the kit is configured for performance of a mass spectrometry assay, wherein the reagents comprise one or more reference peptides in an assay compatible format, and each peptide is uniquely representative of one of the biomarkers.
  • 36. The kit according to claim 35, wherein the one or more reference peptides are selected from the peptides of SEQ ID NO: 6 or SEQ ID NO: 14.
  • 37. The kit according to claim 36, wherein the reagents further comprise one or more reference peptides selected from the peptides of SEQ ID NO: 17 or SEQ ID NO: 18.
  • 38. The kit according to claim 36, wherein the reagents further comprise one or more reference peptides selected from any one of Tables 8 or 9.
  • 39. The kit according to claim 35, wherein the reference peptide is a synthetic peptide.
  • 40. The kit according to claim 35, wherein the reference peptide comprises one or more heavy isotopes of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and/or hydrogen.
  • 41. The kit according to claim 27, wherein the reagents comprise one or more binding agents wherein each binding agent specifically binds to a different biomarker of the biomarker panel.
  • 42. The kit according to claim 41, wherein the one or more binding agents is an antibody.
  • 43. The kit according to claim 27, wherein the at least one biomarker selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 is selected from a protein involved in a KEGG pathway selected from the group of: complement and coagulation cascade, glycolysis/glycogenesis, prion disease, amino and nucleotide sugar metabolism, antigen processing and presentation, extracellular matrix-receptor interaction, focal adhesion, regulation of actin cytoskeleton or alanine/aspartate/glutamate metabolism.
  • 44. The kit according to claim 27, wherein the at least one biomarker selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 is at least two or more biomarkers selected from the group of: Dynactin subunit 1, Cofilin-1, Peroxiredoxin-1, MARCKS-related protein, Moesin, Actin, Protein TMSB4XP4, ApoE, Gelsolin, Secretogranin, Albumin and complement proteins.
  • 45. The kit according to claim 27, wherein the sample is selected from the group of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, plasma, serum, saliva, urine, tissue, brain tissue or combinations thereof.
  • 46. A method for treating Alzheimer's disease in a subject, comprising: a) assaying a sample obtained from the subject for the biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising: i) a phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform, variant or fragment thereof; and/orii) a thymosin beta-4 comprising the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or fragment thereof; andiii) at least one biomarker selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 or a fragment thereof;b) measuring in the sample a concentration or an amount of each of the selected biomarkers of the biomarker panel;c) determining whether the subject has Alzheimer's disease by comparing the concentration or the amount of each of the selected biomarkers in the sample with reference concentrations or amounts of each of the biomarkers;d) administering to the subject an Alzheimer's disease treatment selected from the group of memantine, galantamine, rivastigmine, donepezil, solanezumab, 5HT5 antagonists, or a combination thereof;wherein the sample is selected from the group of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, plasma, serum, saliva, urine, tissue or a combination thereof.
  • 47. The method of claim 46, wherein the assaying step a) and/or the measuring step b) comprise: i) detecting in the sample by mass spectrometry each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel;ii) contacting the sample with one or more binding agents which bind to the biomarkers of the biomarker panel;iii) detecting in the sample autoantibodies specific to each of the biomarkers;iv) detecting in the sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel; orv) any combination of i), ii), iii) or iv).
  • 48. The method of claim 46, wherein the assaying is step a) and/or the measuring is step b) comprise detecting one or more fragments of the biomarker in the biomarker panel.
  • 49. A method for determining the neuroinflammatory status of a subject's brain, the method comprising: a) assaying a sample obtained from the subject for the biomarkers of a biomarker panel comprising: i) a phosphoglucomutase 1 comprising the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:1 or an isoform, variant or fragment thereof; and/orii) a thymosin beta-4 comprising the amino acid sequence of SEQ ID NO:2 or a variant or fragment thereof; andiii) at least one biomarker selected from any one of Tables 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 or fragments thereof;b) measuring in the sample a concentration or an amount of each of the selected biomarkers of the biomarker panel;c) determining whether the subject has a neurocognitive disorder by comparing the concentration or amount of each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel in the sample with reference concentrations or amounts of the biomarkers;wherein the sample is selected from the group of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), blood, plasma, serum, saliva, urine, tissue or a combination thereof.
  • 50. The method of claim 49, wherein the assaying step a) and/or the measuring step b) comprise: i) detecting in the sample by mass spectrometry each of the selected biomarkers of the biomarker panel;ii) contacting the sample with one or more binding agents for each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel;iii) detecting in the sample autoantibodies specific to each of the biomarkers;iv) detecting in the sample by 2D gel electrophoresis each of the biomarkers of the biomarker panel; orv) any combination of i), ii), iii) or iv).
  • 51. The method of claim 49, wherein the assaying is step a) and/or the measuring is step b) comprise detecting one or more fragments of the biomarker in the biomarker panel.
Priority Claims (1)
Number Date Country Kind
1504432.4 Mar 2015 GB national
PCT Information
Filing Document Filing Date Country Kind
PCT/EP2016/055883 3/17/2016 WO 00